LIM ln(1/x)^x x--->0
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}\ln(\frac{ 1 }{ x })^{x}\]
i changed it to xln(1/x), and i let x=1/x such that i ended up having lnx/x , when i did the whole thing, i got infinity, wolfram has 0!
If you let \(x=\dfrac{1}{x}\), then \(\dfrac{1}{x}\to\infty\) since \(x\to0\).
I am not sure about his idea, but what I thought was that\[\int\limits_{ }^{ }\frac{1}{u}~dx~=\ln(u)\]and thus,\[\frac{d}{dx}~\ln(u)~=\frac{1}{u}\]
it should be 1/x in the integral.
and ln(x)
but I think that I am wrong .
which means if we differentiate ln(1/x) we get x?
x times 1/x^2
which is i/x
1/x I mean
\[\lim_{x\to0}\ln\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)^x=\lim_{x\to\infty}\ln x^{1/x}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\ln x}{x}\] L'Hopital's rule from here: \[\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\ln x}{x}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\frac{1}{x}}{1}=0\]
so you have to change the limit to infinity....
That's if you use the substitution you mentioned.
oh thanx!, now it all makes sense, thank you so much. do you have another method?
You can still compute the limit as \(x\to0\): \[\lim_{x\to0}\ln\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)^x=\lim_{x\to0}\ln x^{-x}=-\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\ln x}{\frac{1}{x}}\] Then using L'Hopital's \[-\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\frac{1}{x}}{-\frac{1}{x^2}}=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\frac{1}{x}}{\frac{1}{x^2}}=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{\frac{1}{x}}=\lim_{x\to0}x=0\]
thanx @SithsAndGiggles and @SolomonZelman . i am still getting used to the indeterminate form of limits
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