HELP !! any simple proof for proving "e" is irrational ?
lets use the definition of e ?
okay
\(\Huge e=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty }\frac {1}{n!}\)
can we use this instead ? \(\large e= \lim \limits_{n\to \infty} \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n\)
because I did not work the the earlier series definition yet
mmm i'm attended to expanding e and then assume its rational to reach a contradiction for the one u mintion i never proved e by limit but if u have an idea i would like to see
okay lets use the series definition then :)
\(\Huge e= 1+\frac {1}{1!}+\frac {1}{2!}+\frac {1}{3!}+...\)
lets assume e is rational \( \Huge e=\frac {a}{b}\) s.t both a,b bositive integers and a<b
im wondering what Co is ryping
\[\large \dfrac{a}{b} = 1+\frac {1}{1!}+\frac {1}{2!}+\frac {1}{3!}+... \]
hence be=a so be is integer
. Observe that we can write any real number r as \[a + \frac{ b _{2} }{ 2 } + \frac{ b _{3} }{ 3! } + \frac{ b _{4} }{ 4! } + \frac{ b _{5} }{ 5! } + ....\] where a∈Z and each bn∈{0,1,…,n−1}. This is the expansion of r in the factorial number system, where bn is the n'th "digit". In particular, a=⌊r⌋ and bn=⌊n!(r−sn−1)⌋ for each n, where sn denotes the n'th partial sum of the above series. It is easy to see that r is rational if and only if this expansion terminates. Then e must be irrational, since its expansion does not terminate: \[e = 2 + \frac{ 1 }{ 2 }+ \frac{ 1 }{ 3! }+ \frac{ 1 }{ 4! }+ \frac{ 1 }{ 5! } + ...\]
also b!e is integer as well ok ?
stop wondering now :P @ikram002p
lol @CO_oLBoY first time to know that i can write any real number r as that xD
whoa ! interesting, how this factorial number system works - is it like positional number system ?
we can represent 1.237 as 1 + a/2! + b/3! + c/4! is it
its like using some F(x) tylor expantion
bn=⌊n!(r−sn−1)⌋ this looks bit hard to interpret to me >.<
since it an infinite series of fractions there must exist a fraction in the series that has a lower decimal value that a few previous fractions
Therefore it must be irrational done
:D
what about other infinite series of fractions that converge to integers ?
Oh you're claiming the entire p-series family converges to irrational numbers ?
mmm im using NT to prove idk how to start to prove with limits
okay true xD ill try again when something else hits me
looks cool_boy's method is bit advanced for my level, can we finish this method : \(\large \dfrac{a}{b} = 1+\frac {1}{1!}+\frac {1}{2!}+\frac {1}{3!}+... \) next what
okay wait no!! its not posible for it to converge
because there constantly exists a new prime number multiplication in the denominator
so that previous statement is valid coupled with this
\(\large e = 1+\frac {1}{1!}+\frac {1}{2!}+\frac {1}{3!}+... \) as i said before b!e is integer , so lets multibly by b!
\(\large b!e = b!+\frac {b!}{1!}+\frac {b!}{2!}+\frac {b!}{3!}+... \)
also if we continue expantion it would be like this \(\large b!e = b!+\frac {b!}{1!}+\frac {b!}{2!}+\frac {b!}{3!}+...+\frac {b!}{b!}+\frac {b!}{(b+1)!}+... \)
b!e is integer so the expantion is integer too also this sumation \( \large S = b!+\frac {b!}{1!}+\frac {b!}{2!}+\frac {b!}{3!}+...+\frac {b!}{b!}.\)
wid you so far :)
\(\large b!e = S +\frac {b!}{(b+1)!}+\frac {b!}{(b+2)!}+\frac {b!}{(b+3)!}...\)
let \(\large M=\frac {b!}{(b+1)!}+\frac {b!}{(b+2)!}+\frac {b!}{(b+3)!}...\) so b!e=S+M
\[\large b!e = S +\frac {1}{b+1} + \frac{1}{(b+1)(b+1)} + ... \]
mmm
u mean b+2 in next term right :D
if yes then we are approching
yes typo
cool :D
so n+1 <n+2 1/n+1>1/n+2 \(\large M=\frac {1}{b+1} + \frac{1}{(b+1)(b+2)} + \frac{1}{(b+1)(b+2)(b+3)}... <\frac {1}{b+1} + \frac{1}{(b+1)^2} + \frac{1}{(b+1)^3}... \)
yes \(\large \lt \dfrac{1/(b+1)}{1 - 1/(b+1)}\)
yeah :D so M<1/b+1 (b+1 / b ) ok ? so M<1/b+1
which is a contradiction since b!e=S+M b!e integer and so S
oh so that's a fraction
M<1/b+1 since b positive integer so M cant be integer
sry typo its M<1/b
how did they get that upper estimate
look at the steps dan :O
b!e - S < 1/(b+1) so this contradiction ends the proof, really cool xD
ikr :D
dan the Qn u asked for will have the same steps as this one
oh ofcourse silly question xD
1/n+1 >1/n+2 1/(n+1)^2>(n+1) (n+2) 1/(n+1)^3>(n+1) (n+2)(n+3) 1/(n+1)^4>(n+1) (n+2)(n+3)(n+4) ...
\(\large \dfrac{1}{3} \lt \dfrac{1}{2}\)
ya iwas reading that its nice :)
cool ideas :)
lolz same proof :P
yeah
lol @ikram002p but now u do :P
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