Does this sequence diverge or converge?
\[\LARGE a_{n}=(1+\frac{2}{n})^n\]
Converges to e^2
Could you explain how you got that? I'm new to learning this stuff :P
substitute n = 2x, \(\LARGE a_{x}=(1+\frac{1}{x})^{2x} = \left((1+\frac{1}{x})^{x}\right)^2 \)
take the limit as x goes to infinity
Thank you guys :)
np :) we use the known limit \(\large \lim \limits_{x \to \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{x}\right)^x = e\)
the sequence converges if the limit \(\lim \limits_{n \to \infty }a_n\) exists
And since it got reduced to \[\Large \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} (e)^2\] it just became \(\Large e^2\) right?
yes ! but it is illegal to show limit notation after taking the limit..
\[\large \lim \limits_{x\to \infty }a_{x}= \lim \limits_{x \to \infty } \left((1+\frac{1}{x})^{x}\right)^2\] \[\large =\left( \lim \limits_{x \to \infty } (1+\frac{1}{x})^{x}\right)^2\] \[\large =\left( e\right)^2\]
in the third step limit notation should not be present as the limit was already taken ^
Oh, alright, thanks for the clarification gane :)
np :)
boootifful
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