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Mathematics 8 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

what is the lim of x goes to infinity of x!/x^x and explain why

OpenStudy (anonymous):

You could answer the question by considering the natural-number equivalent of the sequence \(\dfrac{n!}{n^n}\) and substituting successively large values of \(n\). You should notice that the denominator will get larger faster than the numerator, and so the limit must be 0.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

In other words, you could apply a sort of ratio test to the expression. Compare the \(n\)th term of the sequence to the \((n+1)\)th term of the sequence. If the ratio of the two \(\left(\dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_{n}}\right)\) is less than 1, then \(a_{n+1}<a_n\), which means the sequence is decreasing. If you can show the sequence is also bounded in addition to the monotonicity, then it converges, which means the real-number equivalent must also converge to the same value.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Thanks!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yw

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