A bag contains 5 red marbles, 6 white marbles, and 5 blue marbles. Find p(red and blue)
the probability is 10/16 reduced to 5/8
^wouldn't that be P(red OR blue)
5/8 is what i got for P(red OR blue)
no because the question says red "AND" blue @kirbykirby
1st draw: getting a red is 5/16 2nd draw: getting a blue is 5/15, since there are 15 marbles left. Then you use the product rule
no.....just no
I'm so confused
Then how would you find P(red and blue and white and red) ?
If you do by adding the individual probabilities, then you will go over 1 and probabilities can't exceed 1
"I'M DONE" Because me and @tmason8 are correct so it's over
your problem doesn't specify whether this is a single draw of two marbles, or two draws, or whether marbles are put back.... please clarify, or the question cannot be answered
huh?
if the marbles are drawn successively and not put back, then @kirbykirby is correct I have no idea where you got your answer from @gswag98
The question doesn't specify that, which is why I am so confused. I am used to them saying if it is single draw etc.
a single draw is the same as tow successive draws without any marbles being put back. As @kirbykirby stated, P(red)=5/16, then P(blue)=4/15 since once less marble is now in the bag. You can then treat the two events as independent.
typo P(blue)=5/15
Now that I think of it, if it's not successive draws, then we'd have to divide by 2 right? or think of it as \[ \large \frac{{5 \choose 1}{5 \choose 1}}{{16 \choose 2}}\]
*multiply by 2
no, i don't think it would change your answer if the draws are not successive, because\[P(R\cup B)=P(R)P(B|R)=P(B)P(R|B)\]
the conditional probabilities for red/blue respectively are the same regardless of order, and drawing 'at the same time' can always be represented as successive draws without replacement
What is the mean, variance, and standard deviation of the values? Round to the nearest tenth. 1, 9, 4, 12, 13, 13
please post each question separately
how?
close this post (little blue button near start of thread) then do a new one just like before
Hm but if we draw blue first then red, the order doesn't matter, so are we double counting? @TuringTest
hmm i think you are right
by the total probability theorem, i think\[P(R\cup B)=P(R)(P(B|R)+P(B)P(R|B)\]right? so that makes you right, we need to multiply your original answer by 2 since the terms above are equal man, i just took probability and i'm already forgetting it :P
yes of course you are right, silly me XD
don't make sense
we went above your level, I think. sorry, but you probably have a set way to do this from your book, but kirby and I are going off general probability laws
ok
Ah yes total probability rule hehe.
@LearningIsAwesome
Can you make a new question and tag me in it? I think I know this
Can you make a new question and tag me in it? I think I know this @tmason8
\[\large \frac{{5 \choose 1}{5 \choose 1}}{{16 \choose 2}} \] Or think of P(red and blue) as [P(red then blue) or P(blue then red] = P(red then blue) + P(blue then red) = (5/16)(5/15) + (5/16)(5/15)
hmmm... why is this still being replied to I mean tired of getting a notification of this problem you know I think me and @tmason8 are right that's all too it
I know that you can add the fractions 5/16 + 5/16 together
can't*
that's for P(red "or" blue)
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