In Roman times, if one had to kill oneself, and one was a real man, one did it with a dagger. What does Juliet's death demonstrate?

an inversion of the masculine/feminine normative
disparate points on the continuum of "normative adult life"
the paradox that one must have lived to die
Friar Laurence's failure to instill gender norms in Juliet

Question

In Roman times, if one had to kill oneself, and one was a real man, one did it with a dagger. What does Juliet's death demonstrate?

an inversion of the masculine/feminine normative
disparate points on the continuum of "normative adult life"
the paradox that one must have lived to die
Friar Laurence's failure to instill gender norms in Juliet

anonymous · Answer

@SolomonZelman

anonymous · Answer

At the end of the story she does kill herself with a dagger, so it would be A an inversion of the masculine/feminine normative. (Juliet's not a man, but she killed herself according to Friar Laurence statement like a real man)

anonymous · Answer

thanks guys

solomonzelman · Answer

I am reading a question over and over, and it keeps not making sense to me... what does Juliet have to o anything with 'Roman times'
A real man, if I am remembering correctly fell on a sword, not a dagger.

Also Juliet died from drinking a potion that makes her appear dead, and Romeo didn't know that she wasn't really dead and he then drinks an actual poison and dies, and then she dies because someone needs to take her out from the grave...

A is correct for this question as Nanalew sais.