Question

When looking at a rational function, Charles and Bobby have two different thoughts. Charles says that the function is defined at x = −2, x = 3, and x = 5. Bobby says that the function is undefined at those x values. Describe a situation where Charles is correct, and describe a situation where Bobby is correct. Is it possible for a situation to exist where they are both correct? Justify your reasoning.
pleaseee help!!!

Answer 1

(x^-4)(x^2-9)(x^-25)/(x+2)(x-3)(x-5)...and (x-2)(x+3)(x+5)..while the first is not defined at the specified points..the second is the equivalent function after cancelling and is defined at those points. This can also serve as an example where the apparently ( but not actually) same function proves both of them right...( although technically that wont be possible I think)

Answer 2

so what could i put for charles im still confused??

Answer 3

the second equation is for charles...look it is defined at those points

Answer 4

im still so confused could you please go step by step so i understand better please

Answer 5

do you know when a function is undefined at a point?

Answer 6

yeah when the denominator equals zero right?

Answer 7

no my friend...thats infinity..infinity is defined..what is not defined is a form of 0/0 or inf/inf..we just cant define what the value can be...but if the neumerator is non 0 but denominator is 0..the value equals infinity..which is defined..but simply can't be plotted on a graph paper..

Answer 8

so, look at my first function...at x=-2,3,5..its undefined..it has a form of 0/0...so obviously charles is wrong and the other guy is correct...now look at the second function...can u see that if u factorize the neumerator first function and cancel the denominator u r left with the second function...this function is quite defined at x=-2,3,5 see?

Answer 9

are you somewhat clear?

Answer 10

yes thank you!!