Question

Would f(x) = 4 sin (2x − π) - 1be 4cos(2x−(3π/2))-1 ??

Answer 1

I was wondering how I could make this equation into a cos equation.

Answer 2

@Kainui @bradely Do you guys understand what I'm saying?? :)

Answer 3

f(x) = 4 sin (2x − π) - 1
= 4 sin (-(π- 2x )) - 1
=-4sinsin (π- 2x ) - 1
=-4sin2x-1
f(x) =4cos(2x−(3π/2))-1
=4cos(-(-2x+(3π/2)))-1
=4cos(-2x+(3π/2))-1
=-4sin2x-1
So two functions are same

Source: http://www.mathskey.com/question2answer/

Answer 4

really?!?!? so would the vertex be -1?