Please help.
Show that a function in the form \[x \rightarrow \frac{ x+a }{ x-1} \] , x is all real numbers, , is self- inverse for all values of the constant a
is that true?
we can try it and see
\[f(x)=\frac{x+2}{x-1}\\ f\circ f(x)=f(\frac{x+2}{x-1})=\frac{\frac{x+2}{x-1}+2}{\frac{x+2}{x-1}-1}\] lets see if we get \(x\) back
get rid of annoying compound fraction by multiplying top and bottom by \(x-1\) and get \[\frac{x+2+2(x-1)}{x+2-(x-1)}\]
multiply out, get \[\frac{x+2+2x-2}{x+2-x+1}=\frac{3x}{3}=x\] I'LL BE DAMNED learn something new every day!!!
:) @satellite73 , brilliant. But just a question so when it a function its self inverse would be the same then it should be x at the end or what ?
"self inverse" i guess means \(f^{-1}(x)=f(x)\) or equivalently \[f^{-1}(f(x))=f(f^{-1}(x))=x\] or \[f^{-1}\circ f(x)=f\circ f^{-1}(x)=x\]
i am not exactly sure what your question is asking though
in any case i gave myself an easier problem, i used \(2\) instead of \(c\) but if you mimic what i did and replace \(2\) by \(c\) you will arrive at the same conclusion
yeah yeah , what you have answered , has satisfied my doubt :) very thankful
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