HELP ! http://prntscr.com/4fwk7o
@iambatman
I need to show : \[\large f(p_1*p_2) = f(p_1)*f(p_2)\]
yeah yeah
not p any two values
but as u said gcd need to be 1
say \(\large n = ab\) such that \(\large \gcd(a,b) = 1\)
need to show \[\large f(a*b) = f(a)*f(b)\] fine ?
\[f(p_1*p_2) = (p_1*p_2)^k=etc...\]
so \(f(p_1 p_2)=( p_1p_2)^k=p_1^k p_2^k = f(p_1)f(p_2)\)
BSwan <3
<\3
:P buttt
WOW :(
i couldnt forget the laugh when somebody here said cardiod is butt shaped :D
Haha more like a heart no? :P
lol buttriod :P
>_>
look at first result in search https://www.google.co.in/search?q=site%3Aopenstudy.com+ganeshie8%2Bbutt&oq=site%3Aopenstudy.com+ganeshie8%2Bbutt&aqs=chrome..69i57j69i58.17607j0j4&sourceid=chrome&es_sm=0&ie=UTF-8
lool
hehe , i remember that
organic math
It exposes your true identity! Haha.
haha :P who cares
getting back to the actual question, so that proves the multiplicative property is it ? but here gcd need not be 1 i guess it works always : (ab)^n = a^n*b^n regardless of gcd right ?
it always work , exp properties
^
i like this movie songs >.<
which movie songs ? next question looks similar but it maybe tough http://prntscr.com/4fwmnb
jab we met
haha hahaa haaha ahhhaaaha haha thats my fav song too ^^
im watching themovie , actully its the 100 time im watching it hehe im just inlove with it lol , songs amazing still dint reach that part i think within 30 mnts it will start in movie
ok the question hehe
what does `identically zero` mean ?
not identically zero means \(\large g(p^k) g^{-1} (p^k)\neq 0\) or \(\large g( p^k p^{-k} )\neq 0 \) the song started
ok enjoy :) we can work this afterwards, im going for lunch
shure
its 1-1 function let \(\large n= p_1^{k_1} p_2^{k_2} p_3^{k_3}... p_r^{k_r} \) \(\large f(n)=f( p_1^{k_1} p_2^{k_2} p_3^{k_3}... p_r^{k_r}) \\\large = f(p_1^{k_1} )f(p_2^{k_2}) f(p_3^{k_3})... f(p_r^{k_r})\\\large = g(p_1^{k_1} )g(p_2^{k_2}) g(p_3^{k_3})... g(p_r^{k_r}) \\\large = g( p_1^{k_1} p_2^{k_2} p_3^{k_3}... p_r^{k_r}) = g(n) \)
Hence :- \(\forall n \in N , f(n)=g(n) \iff f=g \) is it correct ?
looks perfect :) all it means is that if you show that two functions give same value for all prime powers, then the functions are equal. we don't need to prove them for each and every integer
:)
*valid only for multiplicative functions
if the functions are NOT multiplicative, then f(p^k) = g(p^k) need not imply f=g
what if for all p and k ?
i cant imagin any two continues function that f(x)=g(x) for all x in domain need not imply f=g >.<
what about f(6^k)
if `f` is not multiplicative, you canNOT write f(6^k) = f(2^k)*f*3^k) so clearly f(2^k) = g(2^k) and f(3^k) = g(3^k) NEED not imply f(6^k) = g(6^k)
hmm , its not my point :o
then ?
f=g , iff f(x)=g(x) for all x in domain , right ?
you said something like : f(p^k) = g(p^k) means f=g even if the functions are NOT multiplicative right ?
no , this is what i mean http://prntscr.com/4fxako like this f=g , iff f(x)=g(x) for all x in domain
yes \[\large f(x) = g(x)\iff f=g\]
but below is true only for multiplicative functions : \[\large f(p^k) = g(p^k) \iff f=g\]
so since , f(n) and g(n) multiplicative , and we already given f(p^k)=g(p^k) and any number n can be represented as product of primes , hence we could show f(n)=g(n) for any n in domain , thus f=g
that makes sense
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