The composition functions f?g and g?f are equal to each other for any f and g. This isnt true, right? My only question is what is a "composite function" example: f=x-1 g=x^2 f(g(x))=x^2-1 g(f(x))=x^2 -2x +1
A composite function is a function made up of 2 functions. You "do" g(x) to f(x) here to find the result.
g(f(x)) should be (x-1)^2 instead
(x-1)(x-1) x^2-x x^2-x-x x^2-x-x+1 x^2 -2x +1 i wrote it correctly i believe
soooo this is false?
the statement " f?g and g?f are equal to each other for any f and g." is false
thanks:)
f=x-1 g=x^2 f(g(x))=x^2-1 g(f(x))=(x-1)^2 = x^2 -2x +1
yes your x^2 -2x +1 is correct too
the reason why it is false it is because it says 'for any f,g f compose g = g compose f' . This is not true generally (it is true when f and g are inverses of each other) . So all you have to do is find a counterexample. and you found a counterexample
To falsify a general statement such as above , it is sufficient to find one counterexample.
@perl do you know which function is the reflection on y=x ?
inverse function is reflection on y=x right ?
the inverse function , i think
ok thanks!
it is not necessarily a function, to flip x and y . sometimes we just call it the 'inverse relation'
for example if you reflect y = x^2 about the line y = x , you don't get a function
@perl can you take a look at my product moment coefficient qn ?
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