Question

If f(x) is a linear function and the domain of f(x) is the set of all real numbers, which statement cannot be true?
**The graph of f(x) has zero x-intercepts.
The graph of f(x) has exactly one x-intercept.
The graph of f(x) has exactly two x-intercepts.
The graph of f(x) has infinitely many x-intercepts.

Would it be the first one? I think that because if it contains all real numbers, it would have to contain a number of the x-intercept.

Answer 1

hint: think of the x axis as the line y = 0

so we have 2 equations: y = f(x) and y = 0 to form a system of equations

Answer 2

let me know if that helps or not