what is ln(ln2) - ln(ln 1)
ln 1 = 0 and ln 0 is undefined
so its infinty
in terms of limits the answer is infinity \[\ln(\ln 2) - \lim_{x \rightarrow 1} \ln(\ln x) = \ln(\ln 2) - (-\infty) = \infty\]
how can i find the value of p The integral from 1 to 2 of 1/(x(ln(x)^p)) dx i already Substitute u=ln(x) and you get 1/u^p
\[\int\limits_{1}^{2}\frac{ dx }{ x (\ln x )^{p} }\]
in to \[\int\limits_{1}^{2} \frac{ 1 }{ u ^{p} }\]
how can i find tha value of p to make it converges
\[\int\limits_1^2 u^{-p} du = \frac{u^{1-p}}{1-p} = \frac{(\ln x) ^{1-p}}{1-p}\] plug in limits
??? no idea
why we divided by 1-p
power rule for integrating a polynomial \[\int\limits x^n = \frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}\]
how it acuatlly became u to thepower1-p
aha
that was stupid
as long as p does not equal 1, it will converge because ln(1) = 0
so the value of p should be bigger than 1
p can be any number other than 1
thank you very much you made my day <3
yw
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