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Since x = 0 < 1, f(x) will be y = x2
Substitute x with 0
Why not?
For \(x\le1,~~\)you have \(f(\mathbf{\color{red}{x}}) = \mathbf{\color{red}{x}}^2\) So \(f(\mathbf{\color{red}{0}}) = (\mathbf{\color{red}{0}})^2 = \cdots~?\)
No no. Since x = 0, you don't have to care about the case that x>1.
Because \(x = 0\), you will just go to case where \(x\le1\), because it is true that \(0\le1\) In case \(x\le1\), you have \(f(x) = x^2\). Substitute x with 0 here. then you can evaluate \(f(0)\)
This function is divided into two cases. 1- When x > 1, then y = 2x +1. You won't care about y = x^2 when x > 1. 2- When x<=1, then y = x^2. At this time, you won't care about y = 2x + 1.
Exactly.
Yes. The answer is 0.
You can do it.
First, you draw the function y = x^2.
Then you will erase the right side of the graph from x = 1.
Instead, you will draw the function y = 2x + 1.
It is weird that the function is non-continuous. But this is how it looks anyway.
|dw:1411706364424:dw|
Actually, the left-side of the graph will be y = x^2 while the right-side will be y = 2x + 1
Yes, they are positive: 3 and 1
This is exactly how it looks like.
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