Basic limit question
I need to proof this: \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}(x^{4}\cos \frac{ 2 }{ x })\] is zero
I separated the limits, the first one is zero and zero * a limit is zero...can I do that?
you can separate the limits only when both the limits exist
Oh...then I'm in problems...let me try for a min
lim of cos(2/x) is indeterminate but we know its bound between -1 and 1
are you allowed to use taylor series
Ok...so what should I do? (I can take out the 2 because it is a constant...but I'm not sure how to follow)
Nope...I mean, I could use this numerically or with a graph. I just wanted to try algebraic way
use squeeze them recall -1=<cos(2/x)<=1
So I just say it's 0?
well show the inequality you work with and show how the squeeze thm applies
like you can multiply all sides of that inequality by a little function i liked to call x^4 i gave so it works for this situation
And x^4 is positive so the inequality does not change if you multiply thoroughout by x^4.
nice freckles you still remember all nice things in calc :) this theorem is literally like squeezing : \[\large -1\le \cos(2/x) \le 1 \\ ~\\\large \implies \lim\limits_{x\to 0}-x^4 \le~ \lim\limits_{x\to 0}x^4\cos(2/x) ~\le \lim\limits_{x\to 0}x^4 \]
So it's 0 :) thanks
it is 0 that is what you were trying to prove right? so the proof is actually the answer
Ok :) thanks to everyone. I really did not understand the squeeze theorem...until now
http://assets.openstudy.com/updates/attachments/5404d2ece4b0f2ed1e147305-bswan-1409629617917-ff.gif
One question. If the limit was 0.5, I would've not gotten the same answer. Would it still be correct?
Oh...I just saw the graph :)
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