Question

how to solve this ?
lim n tends to infinity 1/(n+1)^2

Answer 1

You're saying that n is going to infinity? Then (infinity + 1)^2 will be a very very very huge number, so if you divide 1 by that very very very huge number, you will get a 0.

Answer 2

ohk thank u :)

Answer 3

\[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{ 1 }{ (n+1)^{2} }\]That equals 0

Answer 4

TY for the medal!