Help interpreting an exert from Stanford Encyclopedia. Does Pascal believe in Efficacious Grace or does he dismiss the idea?
Excert: "These suggestions were thought to deny or mitigate the exclusive efficacy of the Incarnation. Jansenism represented a starkly exclusive interpretation of how God's assistance enabled Fallen human beings to recover from the effect of Original Sin by the influence of ‘efficacious grace’. However, such a unilateral interpretation of God's intervention seemed to make human effort redundant. Pascal mocked the theory that God assisted weak human beings by means of a ‘sufficient grace’ which was not sufficient, and that this insufficient grace required an independent contribution from human agents. ‘By sufficient grace you mean a grace that is not sufficient’ (Provincial Letters: I, 601). In response to what he understood as various degrees of Pelagianism, Pascal defended a position according to which no human effort could contribute to salvation, even as a partial cause, and God's agency is completely efficacious if He chooses freely to assist undeserving sinners."
@e.mccormick , @myininaya , @LanguageEnthusiast
Sure.
This isn't an assignment. This is just me wanting to expand my knowledge of Pascal.
Haha, it's no an assignment. Anyways, can you help me?
I can do my best (=
Okay, well, what does it look like to you?
Its would appear he is dismissing the idea heres why: "Pascal defended a position according to which no human effort could contribute to salvation"
Do you see what I mean now?
What is he saying here: Pascal mocked the theory that God assisted weak human beings by means of a ‘sufficient grace’ which was not sufficient, and that this insufficient grace required an independent contribution from human agents. ‘By sufficient grace you mean a grace that is not sufficient
Exactly hes saying things to contradict the fact that he is dismissing the whole idea.
I under that that much. Ditto. The idea of efficacious grace is that certain individuals are called to God and influenced threw invents they feel are righteous and just, while disregarding sinners. This destroys the idea of free will. If his grace was sufficient, then he wouldn't need human intervention to exercise his grace. If you believe in occassionalism, then it's inescapable. A type of deterministic predisposition of the Original Sin. Hmm...?
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Well then if thats what you think try it (=
Sufficient Grace is when one goes beyond what the world would have you be or do. Everyone is absorbing from their environment from their conception, leading them to a particular direction, when one goes beyond "reasonable limits" the world my reject or advance. This is shown in history in scientific and religious thought and breakthroughs. Some may attribute it to insight, intuition, or just luck but the fact remains something happened to the individual that is truly inexplicable.
If you have a problem with "beyond reasonable limits" try "beyond normal limits"
So what does Efficacious Grace imply in this particular example?
Many today just believe in science, but few really come to understand it until it'a demonstrated in the world where secrets are held. I'm not a conspiracy theoryist but I know certain knowledge is worked in secret and may even eventually kept secret. I've experience things transported from one place to the next, 4 times in the last 15 years, why I was shown this I don't know. At first I thought it would be great because the greatest cost of feeding the world populations is in transportation, than I thought it might wreak havoc on the economy. Years later I consider a person health, if it only was used to remove tumors, blood clots, and all sorts of blockages in mans biology, but this mean man must control it. I'm not sure that's a good idea as I thing our government thinks. So until then I leave it up to my Lords to implement this phenomenon to the benefit of their people as I say my nightly pray "Our Father ....". Is teleportation scientifically possible, I think so, can God do more than what's scientifically possible? My hope is so.
I am utterly confused by the dialogue of this post... As far as I know Pascal never wrote directly what his views where on efficacious grace. However he certainly and strongly rejected Jansenism, his polemics, defines that. Though Pascal wrote polemics on Jansenism, it held nothing to do with efficacious grace and that it was ex natura, the issue was that Jansenism denied sufficient grace offered to all, as you see in the exert from Stanford Encyclopedia cited above.
No, try this @PRAETORIAN.10 https://www.google.com.au/search?hl=en&biw=1366&bih=643&site=imghp&tbm=isch&sa=1&q=Blaise+PAscal&btnG=#hl=en&tbm=isch&q=Blaise+Pascal
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