How to prove f is onto? \[f:\mathbb {R} \rightarrow (-1,1)\\x\rightarrow \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2+1}}\] Please, help
after solving x w.r.t. y, I have \[x = \pm \dfrac{y}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}\] But I don't know how to get rid of minus sign while it is supposed to be.
You don't need the minus. For any \(y\in (-1,1),\) take:$$x=\frac{y}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}.$$This will be a real number since \(y\in (-1,1)\Longrightarrow 1-y^2>0.\) Then a quick computation shows: $$\frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2+1}}=\frac{\frac{y}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}}{\sqrt{\left(\frac{y}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}\right)^2+1}}=\frac{\frac{y}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}}{\sqrt{\frac{y^2}{1-y^2}+1}}=\frac{\frac{y}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}}{\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}}=y.$$
Thanks for reply. However, my question is right there, why not minus? If I don't have minus sign, then it turns easy to me.
@tkhunny
This is very subtle. You will have to buy an argument you may never have heard. When we try to solve \(x^{2} = y^{2}\), for either, we get the odd result \(|x| = |y|\;or\;x = \pm y\) because we do not know anything about x or y. If we know more about them, some of the burdensome notation may be unnecessary. For example, if we KNOW x > 0 and y > 0, then the solution to \(x^{2} = y^{2}\) is simply \(x = y\). See if you can wedge this principle into your argument, KNOWING that we are only in the 1st and 3rd quadrants (and the Origin).
Thank you.
Part of the problem is the symbol, \(\pm\). Some have enumerated five different interpretations of the symbol. In this case, it might mean "x and y take on the same sign, whichever sign that is". It does NOT mean "both", as it sometimes does - such as the Quadratic Formula.
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