Integration/Reduction formula help. Question attached below. Will give medal
If \[I _{n}= \int\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{ 2 }}\cos ^{n}dx, \] prove that \[nI _{n}= (n-1)I _{n}-2, (n>1). \]. Evaluate: a) \[\int\limits\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{ 2 }}\cos ^{6}dx\] \[b) \int\limits\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{ 2 }}\cos ^{7}dx\]
maybe we can try induction assuming n is integer >1
which it is
ok
n=2 would be the base case... But I don't think both sides of that equality are the same
unless I'm doing something wrong
oh do you mean \[nI_n=(n-1)I_{n-2} ?\]
brb
Yes, that's what I meant
So for n=2; we have \[\text{ we want to show } 2I_2=(2-1)I_{2-2} \] \[\text{ so left hand side }=2I_2=2 \int\limits_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\cos^2(x) dx =\int\limits_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}(1+\cos(2x)) dx =? \\ \text{ I will let you finish that line } \\ \text{ and right hand side } =(2-1)I_0=1I_0=I_0=\int\limits_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}dx=\frac{\pi}{2}\]
Induction Hypothesis: \[\text{ suppose } kI_k=(k-1)I_{k-2} \text{ for some integer } k>2\]
Now we want to use that to show that: \[(k+1)I_{k+1}=kI_{k-1}\]
hmm
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