using DCTT integral from 1 to inf of 1/(x+e^2x) is smaller than 1/(x+e^x)? or do i use 1/(e^2x) to compare?
LESS in denominator is always bigger..
you could also simply use 1/e^x to compare
is this true? \[\int\limits_{1}^{\infty} \frac{ dx }{ x+e^x } \le \frac{ 1 }{ e^x }\]
looks good except that integral symbols are missing on right side
lol yes your right xD
interesting... now if the limits of integration included negative numbers than i couldn't say the by removing x the denominator gets smaller
yes we're talking about a function that works only in the given interval, if the interval changes, we need to look for a different function to compare
mmm k thank you, i was worried that i couldn't know for sure if the function gets smaller or bigger by removing a variable, only constants.
graphing both the functions gives you a better idea about the area under the curve..
ok thank you, (unfortunately i am bad at graphing these types of functions)
no, im saying to graph it using tool just to get some idea...
we already know that : \[\large \dfrac{1}{x+e^x} \lt \dfrac{1}{e^x}\] in (1, infty) because the left side has a bigger denominator and so the value of the overall fraction would be less
graphing it gives you more clarity, thats all...
k thank you. so integral of e^-x is... -e^-x?
xD (i know silly question)
yes, are you trying to prove convergence ? then u need to look for a bigger function right ?
Here is the theorem : 1) if the bigger known integral converges, then the smaller unknown integral also converges 2) if the smaller known integral diverges, then the bigger unknown integral also diverges
yeah so it turns out 1/e^x is convergent so that checks out
i dont think so..
your original question is to test convergence of \(\large \int\limits_1^{\infty} \dfrac{dx}{x+e^{2x}}\) right ?
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