Question

If you have a function with slope m, then why doesn't the inverse function have a slope of -1/m?

Answer 1

:O haha brb :P

Answer 2

inverse is defined as reflection about y=x line,
so how the it related to perpendicular stuff -1/m ?

Answer 3

Ok ok this was just a lame trick question I was thinking about because I know some people mess up the slope of an inverse function with a perpendicular line and wanted to see who I could fool.

here's a calculus way of deriving it though for inverse functions having inverse slopes.
\[\LARGE y(x(y))=y \\ \LARGE y'(x(y))x'(y)=1 \\ \LARGE y'(x(y))=\frac{1}{x'(y)}\]

Answer 4

you can get negative reciprocal slopes for constant functions parallel to axes i think