In need of some proof assistance. The function \(f(x)=3x^5- 10x^3+15x+1\) is strictly increasing, and therefore, invertible on R. Find \((f^{-1})'(1)\)
f' = dy/dx (f^-1)' = 1/(dy/dx) = dx/dy
I tried to use the inverse function thm, but I ended up with 1/0... By the inverse function thm. since this qualifies due to being strictly monotone and continuous since it is a polynomial, We can use \[(f^{-1})'(y_0)=\frac{1}{f'(x_0)}\]
But my issue is that at x=1 f'(x) =0
f(x) = 3x^5- 10x^3+15x+1 f' = 15x^4 -30x^2 +15 f'(1) = 30-30 = 0 correct
as such the equation of the inverse of f(x) at x=1 is the line x=1 since we have a vertical slope
but I need to find the value of the derivative of the inverse at that point so I wanted to use this example. I'll type it, but I don't know how
Let n be a positive interger and let f(x)=x^n for x>0. Then f is strictly increasing on (0,\infty) and its invers is the nth root function g(y)=y^{1/n}.
then it just does the computations for g'
So, my issue is, how can I apply this thm.?
and I need the value of the derivative of the inverse at x=1
given y= f(x) = x^n : g(y) = g(f(x)) = x if g = y^(1/n)
that is the example, but i thought we might be able to use it somehow
this simply tells us that the inverse of x^n is x^(1/n)
our f(x) is not strictly increaseing on the interval tho
it is
f'(x) = 0 when x=1 0 isnot increasing
it is, it's called strictly increasing ie \(f(x)\le f(y)\le f(z)\)
if we observe alphabetical order
with a slope of 0, the function remains the same value, but does not decrease
yeahyeah ... f(x) is increasing
x^1/3 is an increasing fucntion yes?
yep
what is the slope at x=0?
0
really?
oh wait, 1/3 not 3
oops, let me look at it
1/3 x^{-2/3} at x=0we get a dne, but lim is 0
there is a vertical slope at x=0 our critical points of interest are when f'=0 or f' is undefinied
well, not technically
since the function would have to be piecewise, for it to be a vertical slope
undefined does not mean a tangent line does not exist, since the most standard form of a line is : Ax + By = C
otherwise, it could be horizontal
also, I think we may be getting off track, as critical points are not allowed to be used here
the equation of a tangent line that has a vertical slope is simply x = k for some constant k the slope is not undefined ... it is a vertical slope
we are not allowed to use that. It has not been proven
Literally all I can use is the definition of derivative and the inverse function thm
and the definition of continuous if necessary
a vertical slope is by definition of derivative ... the left and right limit to +inf they have the same limit
we don't have left and right limit
.... youll have to explain to me why we dont
because this is an analysis course and if it has not been explicitly proven we are not allowed to use it
which is evil, considering I know the answer I just can't arrive there with the tools I am given
what is your definition of derivaitve ..
\[L:=lim_{x \rightarrow c} \frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}\]
where L is then =f'(x)
sorry f'(c) not x
and the limit is defined as when the limit from the right and left are the same .... or what is your definition of a limit?
it's the epsilon delta definition
or the sequential definition, but we are not allowed to use left and right
I've been marked wrong for it before
let c = x+h \[L:=lim_{x \rightarrow (x+h)} \frac{f(x)-f(x+h)}{x-(x+h)}\] \[L:=lim_{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}\]
We are not allowed to go there. Unfortunately since that is the def I am more familiar with using
write up you delta epsilon efinition for me
If you don't know it, no offense, but I doubt you can do this proof. That is essential pre-requisite knowledge for it.
i ahvent taken a real analysis class perse, but i have a read the old textbooks
yea, unfortunately, (and believe me I wishhhhhh this was not the case) I don't think you can get this particular proof
given e > 0, |x-c| > d something like that
prolly not :)
yea, If for every epsilon greater than zero there exists a delta greater than zero such that the absolute value of x-c is less than delta then the absolute value of f(x)-L is less than epsilon
the absolute value bars in the definition infer a left right limit ... but yeah, without your course material id be at a loss
I tried using left and right limits with continuity and I got yelled at :/
yell back :)
hence my lack of wanting to use them again. Haha, well maybe if I was better at writing rigorous proofs I could
I ended up just saying that x=1 is implied by g'(y)=1/0
f(x) is invertible, f'(1) = 0 ... therefore the inverse is 1/0 which is undefiined, or vertical depends on how your course defines 1/0
I can't think of how to prove it so hopefully they will just ignore it
The issue is that 1/0 was never defined
wanna try another?
the derivative of f(x) is never negative, so f(x) is increasing on any function by the thrm, f(x) is invertible on this interval ... etc
*f(x) is increasing on any interval
Got it
here it is essentially: we have (f^{-1})'f(x)<-I equal y!!!=1/f'(x_0) so when does f(x)=1? at x=0 so our x_0=0 and we get 1/15
thought you'd like to know
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