Prove or disprove there is a smallest positive number
\(n<n+1\\ \infty<\infty+1\\ \infty<\infty \\but ~~ \infty=\infty\)
You can't specific the smallest positive number. If you can think of extremely small positive number, there is always smaller positive number.
Assume that number is in real number set
the way i see it is that there is no such thing as a smallest positive number. if i let x>0 I assume that for all numbers y>0. It is true that y>x so if that is true then that means 1/2x>x divide my x 1/2>1
\[\text{ Assume } x \text{ is the smallest positive number.} \\ \text{ Let } x>\epsilon >0 \] \[\text{ So } x-\epsilon<x \] \text{ and } x-\epsilon is also a what kinda number?
\[\text{ Assume } x \text{ is the smallest positive number.} \\ \text{ Let } x>\epsilon >0 \text{ So } x-\epsilon<x \text{ and } x-\epsilon \text{ is also a what kinda number? } \]
that kind of forces\(\large \epsilon \) to be the smallest positive number right
I don't know, doesn't sound right. you assumed that x is smallest positive number, yet you set \(\epsilon \) to be number between \(x\) and \(0\), so that contradicts what you assumed before I'm new to proof, so I dunno lol.
oh true
we may try below : \(\large \dfrac{x}{2} \lt x\) but the real big deal is in cooking p a nice argument around it
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_by_contradiction#No_least_positive_rational_number
That's kind of what we are tying to do. figuring out how to prove it using proof by contradiction.
\[\large \forall x \in \mathbb{R^+}\exists y\in \mathbb{R^+} : y \lt x\] we define \(\large y = \dfrac{x}{2}\)
don't bother about it, im just brushing up my knowledge in quantifiers.. ;p
@nerdguy2535 is really good at proof writing
By number do we mean integer? or rational/real?
@helpmath123
Looking at what people have been typing, I assume its either rational or real.
lol he is offline...
Then @ganeshie8 's idea is the correct one. For any positive real number \(x\), \(\frac{x}{2}\) is another positive real number which will be strictly smaller.
What about rational? Should proof be different? I think same proof can be used for rational, since this set is uncountable infinite set, like real number, right?
Yeah, the same proof works for rationals, since \(x\in \mathbb{Q}\Longrightarrow \frac{x}{2}\in \mathbb Q\).
Okay cool.
ahh good catch, didn't notice it was not mentioned whether the number was rational or real lol
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