Please help!!!! Which tangent line gives a better approximation x=1? f(x)=-x^(3)-2x^(2)+x+1 and g(x)=ln(x+1)+1?
The equation for the first one is 3x^(2)-4x+1 and the second is (1/x+1).
The tangent line equation for the first one is y=x+1 and it is the same for the second one y=x+1.
How do I see which tangent line gives a better approximation at x=1? Thanks!
f(x)=-x^(3)-2x^(2)+x+1 and g(x)=ln(x+1)+1 f'(x)=-3x^(2)-4x+1 and g'(x)=1/(x+1) f'(1) = -6 g'(1) = 1/2 im not sure how you can to the conclusion that they have the same tangent lines since the clearly have different slopes
The question part b said "Show that g(x) has the same tangent line as f(x) at x=0".
ah, at x=0 ...
Yeah, both at x=0.
f(0)=1 and g(0)=1 and the derivatives have the same slope at x=0 tanf = tang = x+1
at x=1 we have a linear approximation of 2 right?
Yeah!
now we just compare this to the actual values to see which is the better approximation
what is f(1) and g(1)
f(1)= -1
so at some error: tanf(1) + error = f(1) 2 + error = -1 error = -3, of as a distance, we are off by 3 compare tang(1) + error = g(1) and define the error for it
Does that mean that it's not a good approx.?
dunno, we are seeing which function it approximates better, so the one with the smallest error wins
I thought somewhere we had to use f(a)+f'(a)(x-a) for linear approximations?
we did
thats how we made the tangent lines
tanf = f(0)+f'(0)(x-0) tang = g(0)+g'(0)(x-0)
Oh okay. So at x=1 it is supposed to be close to 2?
no, at x=1, the approximation of the tangent line is 2 the functions will be whatever they are going to be. linear approximations are only so good for a limited interval ... at least as far as an error rate is concerned
all we are doing in this is seeing how which function has the better approximation is all
I'm sorry. I was really confused!
does it makes sense yet?
at x=0, everything is great .... as we move away from 0, the curves bend away from the line. one curves further away than the other.
could I graph this on a calculator to see?
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=y%3D-x%5E3-2x%5E2%2Bx%2B1%2C+y%3Dln%28x%2B1%29%2B1%2C+y%3Dx%2B1 of course
So the ln(x+1)+1 function better approximates at x=1?
the tangent line better approximates ln(x+1)+1 at x=1, yes it has a smaller error
Okay! I get it now. Thank you. I think I will just graph it from now on to understand!
if that helps :) good luck
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