Find MacLurin Series for f(x)..The process to solve is attached. I do not understand how you get from step, one to step two. Step three and four I understand.
Hmm I would have gone about this in a different way... In any case, I suppose you understand how \[\large e^{-t^2-1}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-t^2)^n}{n!}-1=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^nt^{2n}}{n!}-1\] right?
What they do is make the first term of the series disappear: \[\begin{align*} \sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^nt^{2n}}{n!}&=\frac{(-1)t^0}{0!}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^nt^{2n}}{n!}&\text{extract the first term}\\\\ &=1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^nt^{2n}}{n!}\\\\ \sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^nt^{2n}}{n!}-1&=\left(1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^nt^{2n}}{n!}\right)-1&\text{subtract 1 from both sides}\\\\ e^{-t^2}-1&=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^nt^{2n}}{n!}\\\\ &=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^{n+1}t^{2(n+1)}}{(n+1)!}&\text{shift the index}\\&&\text{back down to 0}\\\\ &=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^{n+1}t^{2n+2}}{(n+1)!} \end{align*}\] And from here they integrate over \([0,x]\).
Thank you
yw
Which way would you have gone about doing it?
When you say the first term what they are doing is getting rid of the 1 in th equation correct?
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