help :S
\[y(x)=1+\int\limits_{ 0}^{x }\frac{ (y(t))^2 }{ 1+t^2 }dt\]
I got \[y(x)=-\frac{ 1 }{ (\arctan(x)+c) }\] but how do I get rid of c?
Unfortunately, I havent seen this type of an integral before with y(t) being a part of the integral, but why would you have c in the first place? Is this not a definite integral?
\[\frac{ dy }{ dx }=0+\frac{ d }{ dx }\int\limits_{0}^{x}\frac{ (y(t))^2 }{ 1+t^2 }dt\] \[\frac{ dy }{ dx }=\frac{(y(x))^2 }{ 1+x^2 }\] \[\int\limits_{ }^{ }1/(y(x))^2=\int\limits_{ }^{ }\frac{ 1 }{ 1+x^2 }\] \[-1/y=\arctan(x)+c\]
Oh, you were differentiating?
Edit: \[\int\limits_{ }^{ }1/(y(x))^2dy=\int\limits_{ }^{ }\frac{ 1 }{ 1+x^2 }dx\]
Okay, I see what you were doing. Interesting for sure. Well, given that's the way it would be done, is there a need to eliminate c? Like is it required as a part of what you are doing, or do you just want it to go away?
it should have 1 answer, not infinite answers
got it :D
May I ask what you did?
\[y(0)=1+\int\limits_{0}^{0}........dx\]
I see. Basically is a built in initial condition I suppose. Cool :)
1=-1/(arctan(0)+c) 1=-1/(0+c) c=-1
:D
Good job then :) Always good when you can figure it out on your own.
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