proof question, I need to prove that \[f'(c)=\lim_{h\rightarrow 0} \frac{f(c+h)-f(c-h)}{2h}\]
So my issue is getting 2h on the bottom. Through a substitution from the definition of derivative of h=x-c, I can get the top and bottom minus the 2. Any ideas?
@satellite73 any thoughts?
\[\lim_{h\rightarrow 0} \frac{f(c+h)-f(c-h)}{2h}\] \[\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c+h)-f(c)}{2h}-\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c-h)-f(c)}{2h}\]
then I think it should be good from here right?
pull out the constant multiple and you know f'(c) equals you know what
ahh add c subtract c. Thanks
oh wait, no that doesn't get me the 1/2
add f(c) and subtract f(c) and if you aren't convinced that one thing is f'(c) you could substitute the -h for u
we cannot assume the conclusion
\[\frac{1}{2}f'(c)-\frac{1}{2} f'(c)\]
oh your right it gives you 0
Let f(x)=x^2 f(c)=c^2 f(c+h)=(c+h)^2=c^2+2ch+h^2 f(c-h)=(c-h)^2=c^2-2ch+h^2\[\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{c^2+2ch+h^2-c^2+2ch-h^2}{2h}=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{2ch+2ch}{2h}=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}(c+c)=2c\] lol just had to make sure
I just cannot figure out the two... but if I compare it to the definition I know that involves h \[f'(x)=\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}\]We haven't proved that, but it is the def I know from calc... so somehow, f(x)=1/2f(x-h)
I get that lol
I didn't buy it at first either
I am trying to turn \[\lim_{x\rightarrow c}\frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}\] into that
yeah that is what i'm trying to do now
So my first step was a substitution of h=x-c which turns it into \[\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c+h)-f(x-h)}{h}\] Ahhh! we have to change the x-h into a c-h right!
\[\lim_{u \rightarrow c}\frac{f(u+2h)-f(u)}{2(c-u)}\] hmmm...
so we input so we put in the c+h for the x... no that doesn't work. We just get c then
wouldn't yours have to be a double limit?
I think I made a typeo let's see u=c-h u+h=c h=c-u so c+h=c+(c-u)=2c-u
\[\lim_{u \rightarrow c}\frac{f(2c-u)-f(u)}{2(c-u)}\]\[\lim_{u \rightarrow c}\frac{f(2c-u)-f(u)}{2c-2u}\]
Like the bottom would have been cooler if we had (2c-u)-u but we don't
yea... hmm
why do you have u=c-h?
was making a substitution to see if i could get it in the form\[\lim_{u \rightarrow c}\frac{f(u)-f(c)}{u-c}\]
or the other way around whatever \[\lim_{u \rightarrow c}\frac{f(c)-f(u)}{c-u}\]
\[f'(c)=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c+h)-f(c)}{h} \\ f'(c)=\lim_{-h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c-h)-f(c)}{-h}=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c)-f(c-h)}{h} \\ f'(c)+f'(c)=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c+h)-f(c)}{h}+\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c)-f(c-h)}{h}\]
we can't go from that def because we haven't proved it :/
but the other one the one mentioned just a second ago?
I did, we used it in calc, but since we haven't proved it in this class, we are not allowed to use it without deriving it
\[\lim_{u \rightarrow c}\frac{f(u)-f(c)}{u-c}=f'(c)?\]
can we use that one?
what was your u again? or is it the same as x?
if it is the same as x,, yes we can use it
yeah you can think of u as x it is just a variable
you had a substitution prior, so I wasn't sure if you were still using it
I will use x if you need me to \[\lim_{x \rightarrow c}\frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=f'(c)\] let x-c=h so we have as x->c then h->0 \[\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c+h)-f(c)}{h}=f'(c)\] you just proved it now you can use it
meh, ok, that's what I showed earlier, only issue was the secondary x substitution on f(x-h) I was thinking it may not be alright
What? I don't understand?
We just showed that following are equivalent: \[\lim_{x \rightarrow c}\frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c+h)-f(c)}{h}=f'(c)\] \[f'(c)=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c+h)-f(c)}{h} \\ f'(c)=\lim_{-h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c-h)-f(c)}{-h}=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c)-f(c-h)}{h} \\ f'(c)+f'(c)=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c+h)-f(c)}{h}+\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c)-f(c-h)}{h} \]
well in order to get the f(c) you have to substitute in x=h+c
that was where I was having an algebra moment of forgetfulness, but anyways, I still don't see how we get 2h alone on the bottom
what is f'(c)+f'(c)
...ah ok I missed that equality
ok, I got it from here, I just have to add justification to the left limit and hope they accept it. I still do not know how to properly write up a left/right limit, since they technically don't exist in this class
thanks again
what do you mean write up a left/right limit?
is that a different question?
no, but I have to justify the left handed limit concept used to switch the top around.
you need to use left and right limits to prove this?
I'm sorry I'm having trouble understanding.
You used the fact that the left hand limit is equal to the limit in your step 3
oh i didn't do anything with left and right limits
you used -h, and h
orrrrrrr those are two separate sequences. I can spin that
\[f'(c)=\lim_{h \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c+h)-f(c)}{h} \\ h=-a \\ h->0 \text{ then } -a->0 \\ f'(c)=\lim_{-a \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c-a)-f(c)}{-a} \ \text{ replace }a \text{ with } h \] but if -a->0 then a->0 \[f'(c)=\lim_{a \rightarrow 0}\frac{f(c-a)-f(c)}{-a}\]
but you can replace the a back with h
also people i think usually symbolize left limit like this h->0^-
that is using the concept of left/right limits, but it's cool. Conceptually that is what is occurring. We can't say that \(lim{~a\rightarrow 0}=lim {-a \rightarrow 0}\)
but anyways thanks, I got this question from here
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 5}(x+6)=5+6=11 \\ \lim_{-x \rightarrow 5}(-x+6)=-(-5)+6=5+6=11\]
if a->0 then so does -a
it is like saying if a=0 then -a=0
that's not the same question
i didn't use left and right derivatives or limits
for your example(the second is \(-x\rightarrow -5\), and second. You have to rigorously prove it, we can't just use it
no i have -x->5
but anyways, it doesn't matter we are arguing over nothing at the moment
you have to use substitutions to prove this
then your limt would =1
sorry, just your work was weird
you shouldn't have -(-5) it should just be 5 based off of your limit
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 5}(x+6)=5+6=11 \\ \lim_{-x \rightarrow 5}(-x+6)=-(-5)+6=5+6=11 \] Ok we have \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 5}(x+6) \text{ \let } x=-u \\ \text{ so we have } \lim_{-u \rightarrow 5}(-u+6)\]
though thy are logically equivalent
so like I said those are both equal to 11
yes, but the work was incorrect, which is what I look at
but anyways, like I said it doesn't matter at this point
the work isn't inccorrect
if -x->5 then x->-5
so i replaced the x with -5
i could have replaced -x with 5 or x with -5
yes, it is \[lim_{−x→5}(−x+6)=\color\red{−(−5)}+6=5+6=11\] The step in red is not correct, based off of the limit you exchange the entire -x and turn it into a positive 5. You do not insert a negative 5 into x.
we just said the same thing essentially, so anyways thanks for the help, have a good night
no you are saying what I was incorrect and i'm telling you it isn't
but anyways I think I'm done with this
but if you need someone else to clarify what I have said then I will holler at @ganeshie8 maybe he will be able to prove it to you
\[ \begin{align}\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{f(x)-f(x-h)}{h} &= \lim_{t=-h\to 0} \frac{f(x)-f(x+t)}{-t}\\~ \\&= \lim_{t=-h\to 0} \frac{f(x+t)-f(t)}{t}\\~\\ & = f'(x) \end{align}\]
oh its already there above, i have nothing else to say here :O http://prntscr.com/52v507
@Kainui
use definition of slope :)
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