Prove that \(\lim_{N\rightarrow \infty}N\sum_{n=N}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}\) exists.
why prove question draw attention lol
questions*
Because it is interesting question
my first guess, which may be wrong, is to prove that this is cauchy sequence
Since \(N\rightarrow\infty\), N>1. Moreover, \(\frac{1}{n^2}\ge0 \) for all \(n\in N\). Hence, we have \(0\le\sum_{n=N}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}\le\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}\). Thus, \(0\le N\sum_{n=N}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}\le N\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}\). But then, I am not sure how I can proceed from here, or if I am on the right track...
@geerky42, I agree lol
If it is a Cauchy sequence, then the series converges. But what's next?
i have no idea how to show it is cauchy, that was just my guess as a strategy
Does "it" refer to \(N\sum_{n=N}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}\) or \(\frac{1}{n^2}\) ?
if you are asking me i would say "it" refers to \(N\sum_{n=N}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}\)
you are working too hard
oh damn
try an integral test
don't tell me it is l'hopital or something that simple
We haven't learnt it in our class yet D:
you haven't done the integral test?
Not yet. Only Cauchy, Comparison, Ratio, Root, and Alternating Series Test.
well an integral test is derived from the comparison test
\[\sum_{n=N}^\infty\frac{1}{n^2}\le \int\limits_{N}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2}dx =\frac{1}{N}\]
yeah, it is one damn
\[N\sum_{n=N}^\infty\frac{1}{n^2}\le N\int\limits_{N}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2}dx =N\frac{1}{N}=1\]
not real happy though...still missing something
need to show that \(\displaystyle N\sum_{n=N}^\infty\frac{1}{n^2}\) as a sequence in N is monotone
it is monotone. I can show the difference \(a_{N+1}-a_N\) is negative
bounded monotone sequences converge
i should have \[N\sum_{n=N}^\infty\frac{1}{n^2}\le N\int\limits_{N-1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2}dx =N\frac{1}{N-1}=\frac{1}{1-\frac{1}{N}}\]
Not happy at all... \[a_{N+1}-a_{N} = (N+1)\sum_{n=N+1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}-N\sum_{n=N}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2} = N(\sum_{n=N+1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2} - \sum_{n=N}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}) + \sum_{n=N+1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}\]\[=-\frac{1}{N}+\sum_{n=N+1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}\] Well...
\[1= N\int\limits_{N}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2}dx \] \[\le N\sum_{n=N}^\infty\frac{1}{n^2}\le N\int\limits_{N-1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2}dx =N\frac{1}{N-1}=\frac{1}{1-\frac{1}{N}}\] by the squeze theorem \[1\le \lim_{N\to\infty}N\sum_{n=N}^\infty\frac{1}{n^2}\le\lim_{N\to\infty}\frac{1}{1-\frac{1}{N}}=1\] the limit is 1
using what I have above you don't need to show the sequence is monotone.
so not only does it converge we know the limit now
We are not expected to use integral test though
I didn't technically. I used the comparison test
the integral test just tells you if a series converse or not. It doesn't give you bounds
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