Suppose {a_{1}} > 0 and a_{n+1} = a_{n} + 1/a_{n}. Prove that {a_{n}} diverges to infinity
Suppose \(a_{1}\ > 0\) and \(a_{n+1}= a_{n} + \frac{1}{a_{n}}\). Prove \(a_{n}\ \rightarrow\ \infty\)
here is a hint either \(a_1\ge1\) or \(\dfrac{1}{a_1}\ge 1\)
Couldnt there be a possibility that \(0< a_{n} < 1\)?
\[a_2=a_1+\frac{1}{a_1}\] \[a_3=a_2+\frac{1}{a_2}\] \[a_4=a_3+\frac{1}{a_3}=a_2+\frac{1}{a_2}+\frac{1}{a_2+\frac{1}{a_2}}>a_2+\frac{1}{a_2}+\frac{1}{a_2+1}\] \[a_5=a_4+\frac{1}{a_4}>a_2+\frac{1}{a_2}+\frac{1}{a_2+1}+\frac{1}{a_2+\frac{1}{a_2}+\frac{1}{a_2+\frac{1}{a_2}}}\] \[>a_2+\frac{1}{a_2}+\frac{1}{a_2+1}+\frac{1}{a_2+1+1}=a_2+\frac{1}{a_2}+\frac{1}{a_2+1}+\frac{1}{a_2+2}\] \[a_n>a_2+\sum_{k=0}^{n-3}\frac{1}{a_2+k}\]
the last sum, as n goes to infinity, is essentially the harmonic sum. That sum diverges to infinity.
Wow. Is there anything that just tips you off to do that, or is it just experience?
well the 1/a1 reminded me on the harmonic. I also used my hint...can you see where?
Well, I assume it's what allowed you to claim \[a_{2} + \frac{ 1 }{ a_{2} }+ \frac{ 1 }{ a_{2} + \frac{ 1 }{ a_{2} } } > a_{2} + \frac{ 1 }{ a_{2} }+ \frac{ 1 }{ a_{2} + 1 }\] But that means we're saying that its \[\frac{ 1 }{ a_{n} } \ge 1\]Does that mean we need a case where we assume \[a_{n} \ge 1\] or does it work no matter what with that inequality?
if \(a_1>0\) and either \(a_1\ge 1\) or \(\dfrac{1}{a_1}\ge1\) then \[a_2=a_1+\frac{1}{a_1}>1\] and therefore \(\dfrac{1}{a_2}<1\)
Oh, I think I see what you mean. So as you continue on with your successive terms, you can say \[\frac{ 1 }{ a_{k} } < 1\] for any k >= 2. At least so it seems. But I see what you did more clearly now. Thank you :)
yes
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