Let \(E\subseteq\ \mathbb{R}\) Prove that: a) \(E\) is open iff \(E^{o} = E\) b) If \(O\subseteq\ E\) and \(O\) is open, then \(O \subseteq\ E^{o}\) c) If \(E\) is dense in \(\mathbb{R}\), then \(\forall\ p\ \in\ \mathbb{R},\ \exists\) a sequence \(p_{n} \in\ E\) s.t \(\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} p_{n} = p\)
\(E^{o}\) is the set of all interior points of E. No idea if that's the conventional notation or not.
What is your definition of open?
is the epsilon ball definition?
Hmm, Rudin?
Um " A subset of \(E\) of \(\mathbb{R}\) is said to be open if \(E = E^{o}\) Not Rudin, it's something my professor made on his own. He combined Rudin and two other textbooks and picked bits and pieces out of each, apparently.
Any luck on any of these proofs?
I havent looked at them as much as I would like. So I'm still in the brainstorming stage :P
I guess the first one seems odd to me because it seems just be restating the definition I have given to me. By definition, E is open if \(E = E^{o}\). So to ask me to prove that seems weird because it seems to be true simply by definition, not by using theorems and other knowledge I have access to.
If that's the case, you have half the proof given to you.
I suppose the other half would require me to show the converse?
I should've caught on to that, the definition saying if, the proof asking iff, lol.
Right. The way I had it introduced to me is that an open set is a set whose points are all interior points. This means if \(E\) is open, then \(E\subset E^o\). Since a set's interior points belong to the set, you also have \(E^o\subset E\), and so \(E=E^o\).
I guess conceptually then, that's only possible for an infinite set then, right?
Not necessarily, according to this link: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/OpenSet.html "... it is possible for a more general topological set to be both finite and open."
Alright, so Ill make sure to keep that in mind before I just throw out that claim. Hm...I think I have an idea for the 2nd one, but it kind of revolves around the idea that if a set is infinite, then it is open. But again, not sure I can just claim that. If I can then Im sure I have #2.
I suppose its similar to my previous question. Just instead of saying open implies infinite, I guess im hopign I can claim the opposite, infinite implies open.
Do you have the converse of the first?
What do you mean? As in do I know how to phrase it?
How to prove it. It's fairly simple, straight from the definition of an open set.
Well, if O is open, then it contains all of its interior points. And since O is a subset of E, all of the interior points of O are contained in E. But then the next step, I think, would require that E is always a subset of \(E^{o}\) which I guess we just said above. But....it doesnt explicitly say it in my notes, but I guess that has to be true, eh? \(E \subseteq\ E^{o}\) is always true?
Like, I guess you can't ever say \(|E^{o}| < |E|\)?
Hmm, I think you're going about it wrong. Try showing that \(O^o\subset E^o\). Then you'll know that since \(O\) is open, you have \(O=O^o\) by the first proof, and so \(O\subseteq E^o\).
Right. I guess I thought that required me to be certain that \(E \subseteq\ E^{o}\) was always true. I wasn't sure I could make the jump from \(O \subseteq\ E\) to \(O^{o} \subseteq\ E^{o}\) Without that n between step. Um....Oh, but you dont want me to go from \(O\) to \(O^{o}\), you think I need to start with \(O^{o}\)?
Start off with some interior point \(p\) of \(O\). Using the definition of an interior point, you have a neighborhood of \(p\), call it \(N\), where \(N\subset O\). Now since \(O\subset E\), you have \(N\subset E\), so \(p\in E^o\). This means \(O^o\subset E^o\). The rest of the proof follows from here.
Okay, using the definition of interior point let's me use the neighborhood idea, which will allow me to safely say my chosen element is in \(E^{o}\) I think I feel more safely about that then. That probably outlines that well enough. I guess now I'm trying to understand the idea of "dense." The way it's defined for me is: "Let E be a subset of \(\mathbb{R}\). E is said to be dense in \(\mathbb{R}\) if \(E \cup\ E' = \mathbb{R}\)." So, since E' is the set of all limit points of E, I would think that all \(E \cup\ E'\) really means is that you must include the endpoints of the set E. Which I guess reads to be as in you need a closed interval that equals \(\mathbb{R}\). But I know this interpretation is wrong since it is noted that \(\mathbb{Q}\) is dense in R. So maybe I'm misunderstanding limit points or something, but I'm missing something about the definition.
I never really had a good idea of what dense meant myself, or maybe I did but it's been too long... in any case, I suggest watching these lectures, they really helped me out: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ebnoxgp8mLM http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6zs_PTUfKAk The prof doesn't really delve into the definition of dense until the last 4 or 5 minutes of the second lecture, but it might give you a better idea of what dense means. (The other parts of the videos make up a really nice comprehensive review of the other definitions.)
Alright, Ill look them over and go from there. Thanks as always, Sith :)
Happy to help!
^_^
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