Prove that if \(\mathcal{X}\) is a normed vector space, then for any subspace \(\mathcal{S} \subset \mathcal{X}\), \(\overline{S}\) is a subspace.
I think we are assuming that the topology on the space is the metric topology induced by the norm.
It looks like we have three cases to deal with. 1) Where \(x, y \in \mathcal{S}\), we show that \(ax + by \in \overline{\mathcal{S}}\) 2) Where \(x'\) is a limit point of \(\mathcal{S}\) and \(y \in \mathcal{S}\), we show that \(ax' + by \in \overline{\mathcal{S}}\) 3) Where \(x', y'\) are limit points of \(\mathcal{S}\), we show that \(ax' + by' \in \overline{\mathcal{S}}\)
1) Is obvious since \(\mathcal{S}\) is a subspace and so \(ax + by \in \mathcal{S} \subset \overline{\mathcal{S}}\) 2) Let's show that \(ax' + by\) is a limit point. We need to show that for any ball \(B_\epsilon(ax' + by)\) there is some \(s \in S\) such that \(s \in B_\epsilon(ax' + by)\). In other words we must show that there is some \(s\) such that \(|(ax' + by) - s| < \epsilon\). Since \(x'\) is a limit point we can find some \(x\) such that \(|x' - x| < \frac{\epsilon}{a}\). Therefore take such an \(x\) and let \(s = ax + by\). Then \(|(ax' + by) - (ax + by)| = |ax' - ax| < \epsilon\). Therefore \(ax' + by\) is indeed a limit point of \(S\) and therefore \(ax' + by \in \overline{\mathcal{S}}\)
Does that make sense so far?
For 3 we can do something similar approximating a limit point ax' + by' via some point ax + by in S.
\(\bar S\) would be the smallest closed set that contains S , right ? we need to show that \(\bar S=S\) , that would give \(\bar S\) is also open , 2 direction proof :- a) \(S \subset \bar S\) done b) \(\bar S \subset S\) "we need to show that S is closed , then done
That doesn't make sense. Why would it be true that \(S =\overline{S}\). This is not true in general...
in general its not true , but ur qustion is asking about if S closure is a subspace which means if S closure is an open in ur space , so consider the properties
I'll give you an example to make this concrete. Let \(\mathcal{X}\) be the set of simple functions on \([0, 1]\) then the closure is the set of \(L^1\) functions on \([0, 1]\)
The set of simple functions is certainly not the same as the set of \(L^1\) functions but the simple functions are dense in the set of \(L^1\) functions.
The set of simple functions is a vector subspace because you can add simple functions and get a simple function.
ohkk , i dint notice that >.<
@SithsAndGiggles
I don't know near enough about the topic to help, but you can find a nice discussion of the proof here: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/202369/is-closure-of-linear-subspace-of-x-is-again-a-linear-subspace-of-x
It looks like I was on the right track. The third case looks like it requires a bit more work than the second though.
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!