Try it guyz
Solve for x :- \[\huge x = 1+\frac{ 1 }{ 3+\frac{ 1 }{ 2 + \frac{ 1 }{ 3 + \frac{ 1 }{ 2 + ..... \infty } } } }\]
\[\large x = 1+\frac{1}{3 + \frac{1}{1+x} }\]
that nested thingy from the indian guy
31-7 is the answer.
intellingent you have ripped out the question @ganeshie8
31/7
oh sorry i thought something else.
answer is \[\huge \sqrt{\frac{ 5 }{ 3 }}\]
nice work. @ganeshie8
his name is ramanujan @ikram002p
Whose name?
Is that a joke?
Yeah Srinivasa Ramanujan the name speaks for itself
but this is not that case i think
is the value of x a approximation @ganeshie8 @ikram002p
How can we give a finite value to the infinite sequence i don't understand
how about geometric series ?
yeah i don't get
\[1+\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8}+\cdots = 2\]
so it is a approximation right
it is exact
it tends to 2
yes, it approaches 2
this is a good question , its approaches but exact xD
LOL
im serous :D
2 can approach 2 ?
@ikram002p Are you coming back to my Binomial theorem question?
yeah
\[\sum \limits_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^2} = 2\] the series exactly equals 2
the sequence of partial sums approach 2
:)
\[\sum \limits_{k=0}^{\text{large n}} \frac{1}{k^2} \approx 2\]
\[\sum \limits_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^2} =2\]
here why we use approach or tend when its infinite :- \(\sum \limits_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^2} = \lim_{n \to \infty } \sum \limits_{k=0}^{n} \frac{1}{k^2} \)
\[\sum \limits_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^2} = \lim_{n \to \infty } \sum \limits_{k=0}^{n} \frac{1}{k^2} = 2\]
it makes no sense to say the infinite sum approaches 2 right ?
hehe its a concept xD its not something i made as n tend to infinite the sum tend to 2 ehh idk why u dont got it , when u take open sets they teach u this
in real analysis
the example i always like sum 1/2^n |dw:1416589096617:dw|
are you suggesting the series approximately equals 2 ?
nope
im saying approaches xD or tend ( little difference ) u can say about it exact if ur not doing a prove of some analysis ( js)
ok
k
my head rejects the phrase "the infinite series approaches 2" it just makes no sense to me
you can say "the partial sums approach 2 as you increase n" but the infinite series in question is always identically equal to 2
if you get what im saying... idk if usage of words like this is right... but thats how i make sense of it
u have a point its just a concept thingy u know , there is no such infinite value that makes the error=0 , that is why proper meaning or understanding would make sense
the limit of a sequence, if it exists is a fixed value. its not running as you increase/decrease n... the limit is not a moving target to say it is approaching something hmm
|dw:1416589995382:dw|
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