Still chunking through Laplace-related problems. Posted below in a moment.
\[\mathcal{L}\left\{\vphantom{} \frac{e^{-2s}}{s^3}\right\}\]
My first thoughts looking at this are that a Heaviside function is going to be necessary in the end result, and the shift in that Heaviside is going to have to be equal to -2; \[a=-2.\]
This is the first problem where I've had to move backwards, in the other direction, when dealing with Heavisides in Laplace, so I'm a little bewildered by it; The next step I'm guessing would be some algebraic manipulation to get the s^3 term in the denominator to be in the appropriate form to have the same argument as the Heaviside function.
Whoops, supposed to be a Laplace Inverse! NOT a Laplace!
\[\mathcal{L^{-1}}\left\{\vphantom{}\frac{e^{-2s}}{s^3}\right\}\]
yes your approach is correct\[L[u(t-a)]=\frac{ e^{-as} }{ s}\]
Alright, so I need an additional s^2, maybe I could break those up for the sake of looking at them separately:
\[\mathcal{L^{-1}}\left\{\vphantom{}\frac{e^{-2s}}{s^3}\right\}=\mathcal{L^{-1}}\left\{\vphantom{}\frac{e^{-2s}}{s}\frac{1}{s^2}\right\}\]
\[L^{-1}\frac{ e^{-2s} }{ s^3 }=\int\limits_{0}^{t}\int\limits_{0}^{t}u(t-2)\\\] does that look correct
The double integral is really odd to me, but I can see why that's the case. I just wouldn't be writing it out that way, but I think I understand.
now we can take take u(t-2) out of the integral and then integrate
How can we take U out of t is involved in the integral?
We're integrating with respect to t, yes?
No variable of integration.
because \[u(t-2)=1 ~~for~~t>2 \]
Okay, so should the lower limits of integration be changed to 2, then?
0 to t-2 i think
its too much lagging :(
so u should get \[L^{-1}\frac{ e^{-2s} }{ s^3 }=\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }(t-2)^2.u(t-2)\]
seems ok?
have u done a problem involving integrating heaviside before?
if not i'm writing a example to clear things
suppose u have --\[\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty}u(\tau-2).u(t -\tau-4)d \tau\\step ~1:u(t-\tau)=1,for~(\tau-2)>0~or~\tau>2\\step 2::u(t-\tau-4)=1,for~t-\tau-4>0~or~\tau<t-4\\so ~the~\int\limits~becomes\\f(t)=\int\limits_{2}^{t-4}1.1 d \tau=(t-6)u(t-6)\] like this
still confused?
I haven't done a problem integrating heaviside before, this is my first; I'm looking at the example now, thank you!
Isn't this t minus tau stuff convolution?
yes the idea comes from here
i can give u another method but i dont know y'll understand it or not , i'm attaching a photo-
wolfram gives the same result http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=inverse+laplace+%5Be%5E%7B-2s%7D%2Fs%5E3%5D
Hey siddhartha, I'm guessing the character to left-is that gamma or something? http://i.imgur.com/IVSZwaN.pngf
Oh, "r" for "ramp"?
I've never seen a ramp function before, either; my book altogether doesn't mention it. Thanks for putting so much effort into all of this stuff, man. It's very generous of you.
My final answer will be in the form:\[\mathcal{L^{-1}}\left\{\vphantom{}\frac{e^{-2s}}{s^3}\right\}=f(t-2)\mathcal{U}(t-2),\]Where \[f(t-2)\]is the inverse laplace transform of \[\frac{1}{s^3}.\]This makes sense to me.
Correction, \[\mathcal{L^{-1}}\left\{\vphantom{}\frac{1}{s^3}\right\}=f(t),\]\[\mathcal{L^{-1}}\left\{\vphantom{}\frac{1}{s^3}\right\} \neq f(t-2).\]
\[\mathcal{L^{-1}}\left\{\vphantom{}\frac{1}{s^{3}}\right\}=\frac{1}{2}t^2\]
Accounting for the shift and multiplying by the unit step function, \[\frac{1}{2}(t-2)^2U(t-2)\] This is the correct answer, but I took a wholly different approach than yours; is my approach consistently valid, or am I making my own patterns that in fact don't exist?
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