Let \(f(x,y ) =\dfrac{x+y}{32}\), x =1,2; y = 1,2,3,4 find \(P (1\leq Y\leq 3| X =1)\) Please, help
I have P (X =1) = 14/32
need help on the first part, how to interpret it?
Don't we have to apply Baye's theorem here?
I mean:\(P(Y=1|X=1) =\dfrac{P(Y=1,X=1)}{P(X=1)}\)
Yes.
If it is so, then, the first one is (2/32 )/(14/32)= 1/7 different from your answer
So, we just add them up?
Yup. I get P(Y=1|X=1) = 1/7
Yes, I got it, thank you so much :)
Very confusing typos. I'll delete that.
One more question: how can you get it quickly like that? I have to calculate the probability and fill up the table, calculate everything step by step while you got it right after you see it. Is there any tips?
Not really. Use all the tools available to you.
OH,,, if it is so, thanks but I can't. On test, we are not allowed to use technology. :)
Well, spread the table and fill it in! Did you also check to see if it actually qualified as a Probability Distribution?
What do you mean ?
Does \(\sum{f(Everything)} = 1\)?
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