I'm trying to find the Laplace Transform of a convolution, posted below in a moment.
I'm looking for \[\mathcal{L}\left\{\vphantom{}t \int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d \tau\right\}\]
I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong, but I immediately do not understand what to do with the t outside of the integral. @satellite73 , could you help possibly on this?
The steps I'm taking are this: \[\mathcal{L}\left\{\vphantom{}\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d \tau\right\}=\mathcal{L}\left\{1\right\}\mathcal{L}\left\{\sin(\tau)\right\}=\frac{1}{s}.\frac{1}{s^2+1}\]
Hey, @wio . Any chance you could help me with this?
looks like convolution ?
Yeah, it does, but I'm not sure how to do it, that's what I'm asking for help on.
The answer is supposed to be:\[\frac{3s^2+1}{s^2(s^2+1)^2}\]
What I was doing was separating the integrand into the product of two laplace transforms (by the convolution theorem)-but I must be doing that wrong, because my laplace transforms are correct; the separation into two functions F(s) and G(s) must be wrong.
If you say that \(t\) is constant with respect to \(\tau\), then:\[ t\int_0^t\sin\tau\;d\tau = \int_0^t t\sin\tau\;d\tau \]
\[F(t)=\sin(t); \ \ \ G(t) = \ ?\]\[f(\tau)=\sin(\tau); \ g(t - \tau) = \ ?\]
Yeah, t can be factored in or out, not really sure what to do with it; what is advantageous about factoring t into the integrand?
t isnt constant tho...its a variable we r gonna sub in...
treating it like a constant might screw stuff up..
I'm guessing maybe manipulating the integrand in some manner to get a second function in the from f(t-tau)?
We sub it into \(\tau\).
^
I factored it in because I think \(g(t-\tau)=t\).
I think you're right, one sec!
\[\mathcal{L}\left\{\vphantom{}\int\limits_{0}^{t}t \sin(\tau)d \tau\right\}=\mathcal{L}\left\{t\right\}\mathcal{L}\left\{\sin(\tau)\right\}\]
Whoops, sin(t).
@hahd \[ t\int_0^tf'(x)\;dx = t(f(t)-f(0)) = tf(t)-tf(0) = \int_0^ttf'(x)\;dx \]
\[=\frac{1}{s^2}.\frac{1}{s^2+1}\]
No dice? Really close to the answer, I'm not sure where I'm doing something wrong.
Wait, maybe since:\[ \frac{d}{dt}tf(t) = tf'(t) +f(t) \]it would be: \[ \int_0^txf'(x)+f(x)\;dx \]
No, that doesn't work either.
^ i was thinking this
leibniz rule..
\[ \int_0^txf'(x)+f(x)\;dx = tf(t) - 0f(0) = tf(t) \]
this is a dum question but is tau like 2pi? or its a variable
lol im really interested now too lol
It's a variable of integration
\[ 0<\tau<t \]
lkk
how do you know that tho?
Limits of integration...
oh gawd kk i get it...
It's just a dummy variable, it's just there to prevent ourselves from confusing up t in the limits and in the integrand.
kk but why doesnt leibniz work here
Well, I don't even understand where you guys are taking a derivative from in the first place.
its given in the form of an integral of a derivative ??? isnt that the natural thing to do...
purpose of the derivative in this case is so I can express the antiderivative.
The laplace transform is an integral operation, and the argument of the Laplace transform is *also* an integral, I don't see where differentiation is coming in at all other than the fact that "d tau" happens to be there, but yeah. I dunno, I pretty much never look at integrals in the manner we are right now, unfamiliar to me.
@dan815
(Brb in 5 minutes, time on this PC is running out and need to go to the next door campus building to use another PC)
\[\mathcal{L}\left\{t\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}\] \[\mathcal{L}\left\{t\sin(t)+\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}=s\mathcal{L}\left\{t\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}\] \[\frac{1}{s}\left[\mathcal{L}\left\{t\sin(t)\right\}+\mathcal{L}\left\{\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}\right]=\mathcal{L}\left\{t\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}\] \[\frac{1}{s}\left[\frac{2s}{(s^2+1)^2}+\mathcal{L}\left\{\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}\right]=\mathcal{L}\left\{t\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}\] \[\frac{1}{s}\left[\frac{2s}{(s^2+1)^2}+\frac{\mathcal{L}\left\{\sin(t)\right\}}{s}\right]=\mathcal{L}\left\{t\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}\] \[\frac{1}{s}\left[\frac{2s}{(s^2+1)^2}+\frac{\frac{1}{s^2+1}}{s}\right]=\mathcal{L}\left\{t\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}\] \[\frac{1}{s}\left[\frac{2s^2}{s(s^2+1)^2}+\frac{s^2+1}{s(s^2+1)^2}\right]=\mathcal{L}\left\{t\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}\] \[\frac{3s^2+1}{s^2(s^2+1)^2}=\mathcal{L}\left\{t\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}\]
Alright, I'm back.
I'm confused about where the first term on the second LHS from the top came from; I'm confused about what operation was done there at all from the original problem.
@Zarkon (PS, thank you); Just wondering about that first LHS.
@ganeshie8 , any clue how he did this?
e.g. where did\[\mathcal{L}\left\{\vphantom{}t \sin(t)+ \int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d \tau\right\}\] come from?
\[\mathcal{L}\left\{f'(t)\right\}=s\mathcal{L}\left\{f(t)\right\}-f(0)\]
Alright, cool. Thank you. Going to take a look at this for a little longer.
\[s \mathcal{L}\left\{\vphantom{}t \int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d \tau\right\}=s\mathcal{L}\left\{f(t)\right\}\]
Product rule is applied;
\[f(t)=t \int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d \tau; f'(t)=t \sin(t)+ \int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d \tau\]
Alright, cool, I got it. Thanks so much, man, that was a really unique/strange approach to apply the definition of the laplace of a derivative.
even easier it you evaluate the integral \[\mathcal{L}\left\{t\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}=\mathcal{L}\left\{-t\cos(t)+t\right\}=\cdots\]
\[\mathcal{L}\left\{-t \cos(t)+t\right\}=\frac{1}{s^2}-(-1)^{1}\frac{d}{ds}\bigg(\frac{s}{s^2+1}\bigg)\]
\(*\) : convolution
i don't see how to use convolution for the remaining integral hmm
** \[\begin{align}\mathcal{L}\left\{t\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau\right\}&=\mathcal{L} \left( (t-\tau+\tau)\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin(\tau)d\tau \right)\\~\\ &=\mathcal{L} \left(\int\limits_{0}^{t} (t-\tau+\tau)\sin(\tau)d\tau \right) \\~\\ &=\mathcal{L} \left(t*\sin(t) \right)+ \mathcal{L}\left(\int\limits_{0}^{t} \tau\sin(\tau)d\tau \right) \\~\\ \end{align}\]
=]
\[\frac{1}{s^2}-\frac{s^2+1-(2s^2)}{(s^2+1)^2}\]\[\frac{1}{s^2}-\frac{1-s^2}{(s^2+1)^2}\]
Then just finding an LCD and combining like terms as appropriate:\[\frac{(s^2+1)^2}{s^2(s^2+1)^2}-\frac{(s^2)(1-s^2)}{(s^2+1)^2s^2}\]
(Lol how about no)
But seriously, I made an algebraic error somewhere, because it looks like those....yeah, it looks like those...just wait one minute.
nvm, right hand term is positive altogether.
why are you not using wolfram to do the donkey work
\[\frac{s^4+2s^2+1+s^2-s^4}{s^2(s^2+1)^2}=\frac{3s^2+1}{s^2(s^2+1)^2}\]
Cuz' need to be good at the donkey work for my test in six hours..... :'C
I'm pretty much having to rapid-fire since last week Monday, constantly do every problem in every section that this test covers prior to 7 PM tonight.
man u guys are overdoing it its so easy and u are making it real big :(
i can do it in two steps
wanna see
sid can you do it in two steps without evaluating the integral ?
ok lets see
)
we need only two basic properties
yes i can do it without any integration @ganeshie8
:O
\[\mathcal{L} \left(\int_0^tu\sin u du\right)\] Okie, i have been trying the same and got stuck at above step :O
first property: \[L[\int\limits_{0}^{t}F(\tau)d \tau]=\frac{ 1 }{ s }F(s)\\\] next property:\[L[t^n.f(t)]=(-1)^n.\frac{ d^n }{ ds^n }[F(s)]\]
Siddhartha about to be all like: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JGw8DWctAts
(For now I'm closing this question and moving on since I'm running out of time, heh, but feel free to keep going if you guys want. I'm in crunch-time. Thank you guys so much, again.)
so according to those\[L[t.\int\limits_{0}^{t}\sin \tau d \tau]=(-1)^1\frac{ d^1 }{ ds^1 }[\frac{ 1 }{ s }.\frac{ 1 }{ s^2+1 }]=(-1).\frac{ d }{ ds }\frac{ 1 }{ s(s^2+1) }\\=(-1)\frac{ -3s^2-1 }{ s^2(s^2+1)^2 }=\frac{ 3s^2+1 }{ s^2(s^2+1)^2 }\] ta da!!!!!!!!!! done without any integration
Nice :) still convolution is not used
but the question did'nt asked to use convolution it asked to find the Laplace Transform of a convolution
(Taking a look at this now as well, the best way I think to get a grasp for how to use all techniques is to see how a single problem can be solved in multiple ways)
Oh right lol i misread the question and messing wid convolution :/
and convolution cannot be used in TIME DOMAIN it is used in FREQUENCY(S) DOMIAN right?
That was pretty clever, the combination of those two properties.
we can find inverse laplace using convolution but laplace using convolution is something complicated
hahaha that theme song for sidd
lol which one dan?
his youtube video up there
lol now i see he looks like a super saiyan :P
how come they make a big deal out of this property 1/s * F(s) lol/ ... like f(t)*g(t)=f(s)g(s)=int(f(tau)(G(t-tau)) tau, its easy to see if u got f(tau) only then g(t) must be a constant or 1, then g(s)= 1/s
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