Limit of function with L'Hopitals (Question below)
Hi guys, I'm completely stuck with one question: \[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\ln( \frac{ 1 }{ x }) }{ x }\] I know I have to do this with L'Hopitals, but I can't get it in an indeterminate form where I can actually apply L'Hopitals. The trusty f(x)=e^ln(f(x)) trick doesn't work here with the existing ln function so I have no idea where to go with this. Any ideas? Thanks.
derive top and bottom
The derivative of ln(x) will be given by the chain rule. Take the derivative natural log first, this will get you, 1/(1/x) which is just as same as x Then multiply this times the derivative of the inside, d/dx (1/x) = d/dx (x)^(-1) = -x^(-2) = -1/x^2 So the entire derivative of the top is going to be, -x/x^2 which simplifies to -1/x.
\[\Large \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\ln(\frac{1}{x})}{x}=\] \[\Large \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\frac{d}{dx}[~\ln(\frac{1}{x})~]}{\frac{d}{dx}[~x~]}\]
Thanks for the reply. I can differentiate it okay, but the part I'm struggling with is getting it as an indeterminate form so I'm actually allowed to differentiate this. I know 0/0 and ∞/∞ are both indeterminate forms, but is 0/∞? Because that's what we have here.
\[\Large \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{-\frac{x}{x^2}}{1}=\Large \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}-\frac{x}{x^2}=\Large \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}~~-\frac{1}{x}\]
wait it IS indeterminate form.
The ln is indeterminate, because you have ln(1/x) and when x approaches infinity (roughly) then, the ln is 0 So it is already undefined.....
Thanks again, but my lecture notes say I need my equation in the form: 0/0, ∞/∞, 0*∞, 0^0, ∞^0, 1^∞ or ∞-∞ before I can apply L'Hopitals. I understand that ln(1/x) tends to 0 as x tends to infinity, but that gives us this form so I'm not technically allowed to use L'Hopitals: \[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{ \ln(\frac{1}{x})}{x } \approx \frac{0}{\infty}\]
Just multiply numerator and denominator by -1.
Thanks for the reply, but which fraction are you referring to? The original limit? I'm probably being thick here but I can't see how that would help.
Yes I am referring to original limit. So then you would get indeterminate form you want, from there, you can apply L'Hôpital's rule.
Wouldn't I just get 0/-∞? I think I've worked it out though:\[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\ln(\frac{1}{x})}{x} = \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{-\ln(x)}{x} \approx \frac{-\infty}{\infty}\]Which satisfies the conditions for L'Hopitals so I'm good to go with the differentiation. Thank you both for your help!
That's what I was trying to say: \[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\ln\left(\dfrac{1}{x}\right)}{x} ~\Longrightarrow~ \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{-\ln\left(\dfrac{1}{x}\right)}{-x} \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\ln(x)}{-x} \approx \dfrac{\infty}{-\infty}=\dfrac{-\infty}{\infty}\]
geerky number 1, lol, of course times -1 on top and bottom...!
but you are posted neg. infinity over positive infinity not as the final answer I hope(?)
Despite my negligence, I still managed to get the correct answer:)
Of course not. I suggest to do that, just so we can get indeterminate form we need, to apply L'Hopital's rule.
Oh, sorry @geerky42, I hadn't even considered manipulating the ln(1/x) so the -1/-1 was a bit confusing to me. @what, no no, don't worry. I just had to satisfy that condition before I could differentiate and find the actual limit :)
But, in theory, or for a future reference, would it be an indeterminate form, if it had an undefined numerator and infinity on the denominator? (Like I did initially)
As far as I know, no. From the definition here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/L%27H%C3%B4pital%27s_rule We need 0/0 or ±∞/±∞.
You do need 0/0 or infinity/infinity to apply L'Hopital's; other (indeterminate? undefined?) (e.g. 0/infty, infty/0) forms cannot have L'Hopital's applied.
You got zero, correct?
Yeah I did, thanks.
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