Someone explain me, please. Examples 11.2.3b
At: " However, if \(\{G_{n_1},G_{n_2},......,G_{n_k}\}\) is any finite subcollection of G, and if we let m:= sup \(\{n_1,n_2,....,n_k\}\), then \(G_{n_1}\cup G_{n_2}\cup .....\cup G_{n_k}=G_m =(-1,m)\) "
@ganeshie8 @Zarkon
One more question: if they defined \(G_n := (-1,n) \) like that, is it not that \(\bigcup\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}G_n = G_n\) . Because I think: \(G_1= (-1,1)\\G_2=(-1,2)\\......\\G_n= (-1,n)\) then, \(G_1\subset G_2\subset G_3\subset .....\subset G_n\) Hence \(\bigcup\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} G_n = G_n\)
heyy
\(G_n\) is a "single" set/interval \(\{G_n\}\) is a "family/collection" of sets/intervals
For both `b` and `c` examples, notice that the supremum of indices( `m`) is in the set but it will not be in the finite subcover.
from another part: if \(G_n:= (1/n, n)\) then if \(\{G_n\} = \bigcup\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} G_n\) is a open cover of set A. It is a union of \(G_n\) and each of them can't be a subcover. I mean this set is not decomposed to smaller one. To the example above, if \(G_n\) is defined as shown, then \(\{G_n\}=\{G_1, G_2,.....,G_n\}\)This is an open cover of the given set, but \(G_n\) (just only ) itself is an opencover of the set. That shows this open cover has a finite subcover on the set A. Hence it is compact. Am I right?
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