Ask your own question, for FREE!
Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

why is the graph of an inverse of a function flipped over the y=x instead of another line?

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

because you swap every x and y and then solve for y to get the inverse

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

when you swap every x and y, then solve for y, it's effectively the same as reflecting everything over y = x

geerky42 (geerky42):

Because basically the definition of inverse function is if \(y=f(x)\), then inverse function would be \(f^{-1}(y)=f^{-1}(f(x)) = x\). Note that x and y got swapped, hence the reason of it being flipped over the \(y=x\) line.

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!