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How to get the logarithm of both sides of this equation?
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\( a_{n}=(\frac{a_{n-2}}{a_{n−1}})^{\frac{1}{2}} \)
why do you have to do that? I mean why do you have to take log?
Is it like \(\log_{\frac{a_{n-2}}{a_n-1}}x = \frac{1}{2}\) where x = a_n?
If you HAVE to, then \[ln (a_n)= \dfrac{1}{2} ln (a_{n-2}) -\dfrac{1}{2} ln(a_{n-1})\]
Why ln not log?
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the same, just because ln is simpler than log
ln is a log base e, log, is a log base 10, (when a base in log is unspecified). doesn't make much difference, but when it comes to calculus, ln is much simpler, as looser said... just do ln... once again, it doesn't matter.
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