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Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (loser66):

a)Prove that a nonzero homomorphic image of a divisible group must also be divisible. b) Prove that a nonzero finite abelian group cannot be divisible. Please help

OpenStudy (loser66):

@Alchemista

OpenStudy (loser66):

fiber of h is just g? f is homomorphism, not one to one. Can we conclude that only 1 g in G is preimage of h?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

a) Let \(G\) be a divisible group and take an arbitrary homomorphism \(f\) such that \(H=f(G)\) is not trivial. We want to show that \(H\) is divisible. Consider any \(n \in \mathbb{N}\) and any \(h \in H\) we want to show that there is some \(x \in H\) such that \(nx = h\). Let \(g \in f^{-1}(h)\) and by the divisibility of G we can find some \(y \in G\) such that \(ny = g\). Then we have that \(f(ny) = f(g) = h = n \cdot f(y)\) since \(f\) is a homomorphism. Therefore let \(x = f(y)\) and we have an \(x\) such that \(nx = h\). Note: \(f(ny) = n \cdot f(y)\) since we have \(f(y+y+...+y)=f(y)+f(y)+...+f(y)\) since \(f\) is a homomorphism.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

There, any more objections?

OpenStudy (loser66):

Yes, It 's good. Can we do directly from G? Let \(g\in G\), there exist \(g'\in G\) such that \(ng'=g\) \(f:G\rightarrow H\\~~~~~~ g\rightarrow f(g)\\~~~~~~ng'\rightarrow f(ng')= nf(g')\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

But you are trying to show that \(H\) is divisible.

OpenStudy (loser66):

That shows H is divisible, right?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Let me check

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I'm not sure that follows. I think it is better to prove that \(H\) is divisible based on the definition of divisibility for \(H\).

OpenStudy (loser66):

Oh, I got you :) since we need prove that every element in H is the form of nh' to get H is divisible. So we must start from H. right?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

You need to show that for every \(n \in \mathbb{N}\) and every \(h\in H\) that there is some \(x \in H\) such that \(nx = h\).

OpenStudy (loser66):

Yes, :) How about b)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Have you thought about it yet?

OpenStudy (loser66):

I confused about it. Since we have Q (rational group) is divisible, but it is infinite. How finite one can limit the divisibility?

OpenStudy (loser66):

One more think, abelian group indicate to +operator in group in this case and we know that all modulo Z is abelian and they are finite. I mean \(\mathbb Z_n\) is divisible and \(\mathbb Z_n/\mathbb Z_2\) is divisible, right?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Did you learn about the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups?

OpenStudy (loser66):

Yes, I did

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Then you should know that all such groups are isomorphic to a direct product of cyclic groups of prime power.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

So take an arbitrary direct product of cyclic groups (of prime power) and show that there is an \(n \in \mathbb{N}\) and a \(g\) in that arbitrary group you picked such that there is no \(y\) in that group such that \(ny = g\)

OpenStudy (loser66):

I think .... I get the idea. Let me try. :)

OpenStudy (loser66):

Consider \(\mathbb Z_6\). Let \(A=\{[0],[3]\}\) and \(B=\{[0],[2],[4]\}\) then \(\mathbb Z_6= A+B\)

OpenStudy (loser66):

order of A is 2 , order of B is 3, then they are relative prime also. then?

OpenStudy (loser66):

4 = 2*2 , how to argue more?

OpenStudy (loser66):

but there is no element \(x\) in A+B, such that n x=3

OpenStudy (anonymous):

What did you choose as \(n\)?

OpenStudy (loser66):

by definition of divisibility, n is "for all"

OpenStudy (loser66):

That is if n =1, then [3] =[3] in A+B n =2 , then [3]+[3]=[0] in A+B and so on

OpenStudy (anonymous):

To show a group is NOT divisible, you need to provide an \(n \in \mathbb{N}\) and a \(g\) in the group such that the following equation has no solution: \(x^n = g\)

OpenStudy (loser66):

I do confuse. why not \(xn \) but \(x^n\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

It is just different notation for the same thing.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

In abelian groups you often use additive notation.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

In other words \(g^n = g\cdot g ... \cdot g \) is written as \(g + g + ... + g\) or \(ng\)

OpenStudy (loser66):

If I pick g = 3, then I need some g' in G that is either 0,2,4 (let say 2) and particular n such that 2^n = 3, right? but there is no such n in N, hence the group is not divisible, right?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

No, you pick \(n\) and \(g\) and show there is no \(y\)

OpenStudy (loser66):

:(

OpenStudy (loser66):

nope, any element in \(\mathbb Z_6\) is cyclic, so that \(g^n \in \mathbb Z_6\)

OpenStudy (loser66):

for example, if I pick 3 in the group, then for all n, I have 3^n in the group.

OpenStudy (loser66):

3^2 =6 =0 3^3 =9=3 3^4= 81=3 so on

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I told you, \(n\) and \(g\) are constants. You need to pick \(n\) and \(g\) and show there is no \(x\) such that \(nx = g\). You are not showing that there is no \(n\).......

OpenStudy (loser66):

What is g? is it an element in G?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Yes

OpenStudy (loser66):

so, now I pick 2

OpenStudy (anonymous):

You need to pick a natural number and an element in the group.

OpenStudy (loser66):

if element in group is 0, then it is so trivial. I don't want the special case. It confuses me. Now I pick element 2 in the group, and pick constant n = 3, then there is no other element among the rest (0,3,4) such that n * that element =2, right?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Think about this: take \(\mathbb{Z}_p\) and try \(n = p\) and \(g = 1\) Can you solve \(px = 1\)?

OpenStudy (loser66):

No

OpenStudy (anonymous):

So for \(\mathbb{Z}_{p_1} \times \mathbb{Z}_{p_2} \times ... \times \mathbb{Z}_{p_m}\): Can you solve \((p_1p_2...p_m)x = 1\)

OpenStudy (loser66):

No

OpenStudy (anonymous):

And all finite abelian groups are of the above form.

OpenStudy (loser66):

:) Thanks a ton. I got it. Thanks for being patient to me.

OpenStudy (loser66):

That is what I want :). It is in general , not just particular case. Since the problem is Prove that ....... I think it must be true for any case and we need start from the general one. I am so sorry for my slowness and stubbornness. ;)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

The idea is to start with a simple case and then try to generalize it.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

This is almost always how you try to solve problems. Start simple and then try to make it work for all cases.

OpenStudy (loser66):

Group theory is sooooooooo hard to me. I learn it hardly. Just one line of theorem, I spent all day to figure out what it is, how to apply to the problem. ha!!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Do you like topology/analysis more?

OpenStudy (loser66):

Actually, I don't!! but whenever I get it, I am sooooooooo happy.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I like it more than algebra.

OpenStudy (loser66):

The feeling of winning the problem is awesome. But sometimes, I just want to give up.

OpenStudy (loser66):

Where is your school?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Canada

OpenStudy (loser66):

Did you take community college before University?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

no

OpenStudy (loser66):

That is why you are that good.

OpenStudy (loser66):

I took community college in 2 years. I was one of the best students there. When I move to University, my classmates who didn't take Community College know the things I NEVER know before.

OpenStudy (loser66):

I works 3 times harder than them to get back what I don't know but I am not good as them still, :(

OpenStudy (anonymous):

One way to get ahead is to solve problems from the text even if they are not in the suggested problems list. The only way to get better is to solve lots of problems.

OpenStudy (loser66):

Yes, I know but I don't have enough time to do that. Go over the lecture and assignment and review and fix the missing things take all my time. :)

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