L'Hopitals rule: evaluate the limit:
lhops rule works for limits that give us 0/0 or inf/inf, if memory serves
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{ \sin^2 x }{ \tan(x^2) }\]
right.
so the first thing i think I'd do is take the derivative of the top and the bottom, because if i just try plugging in 0 i'll get 0 in the denominator
you can apply the L'H'S now
Hints: \(\large\color{black}{\sin^2x=(\sin~x)^2}\) and then use the chain rule. for \(\large\color{black}{\tan(x^2)}\) you will need a chain rule also.
hey guys, let him try
right, so i got. \[\frac{2 \sin x \cos x}{2xsec^2 x^2}\]
\[\sin^2(x) +\cos^2(x) = 1\]For \(\sin^2(x)\) , can you not replace it with \(1-\cos^2(x)\)?
L'Hospitals rule is overkill for this problem
the derivative is correct, study guy
okay.
I would like to hear another way to do it asides from L'h'S if there is any. I am not good at mathematics, and I might miss a better approach sometimes.
hospitalization may be overkill, but I think the purpose of the question is to get someone used to the concept
hospitalization LOL
okay so you can replace the sin^2 x with 1 - cos^2 x because of trig identites
I mean, it sounds like you HAVE TO use it, so we will go that way.
I just wish they gave problems to students that necessitated the need for L'Hospitals rule
Yeah, before taking derivatives I would always reference trig identities first so you can simplify the function before using any simplification rules.
it's like asking someone to evaluate using limit definition... it is overkill, but it serves a purpose
Well, anyway, it is a requirement so lets proceed. We got: \(\Large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~a} ~\frac{ 2\sin(x)\cos(x)}{ 2x\sec^2(2x)}}\)
Okay, when you plug in I mean not a, \(\Large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0} ~\frac{ 2\sin(x)\cos(x)}{ 2x\sec^2(2x)}}\)
if you plug in zero into the limit, what do you get, study guy?
well the denominator is 0 again. so we use lhopital's again?
No no
if the denominator and numerator is zero.
and this is the case, but I just want to tell the concept, that if you get (for example) 1/0, you can NOT apply L'H'S.
but in this case it is still 0/0, right because sin(0) is zero, and the 2x is zero, when x=0.
\(\Large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0} ~\frac{ 2\sin(x)\cos(x)}{ 2x\sec^2(2x)}}\)
Apply L'H's rule again.
okay
take your time:)
should i first use the trig identity to make the 2sin(x)cos(x) into sin(2x) so it's easier?
Yes!!
yes, if you want.
\(\Large\color{black}{2\sin(x)\cos(x)=\sin(x)\cos(x)+\sin(x)\cos(x)=?}\)
@SolomonZelman keep it simple!!
Am I not?
Lol.. taking the derivative of \(2x\sec^2(2x)\) is also a headache enough.
okay so i think i got it is it: \[\frac{ 2\cos(2x )}{ 4\sec(x^2)\sec(x^2)\tan(x^2) }\]
not really. taking a derivativ is never a headache. A couple of chains, even I can do that.
\[\Large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0} ~\frac{ 2\sin(x)\cos(x)}{ 2x\sec^2(2x)}}\] \[=\Large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0} ~\frac{ \sin(x)}{ x}\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0}\frac{\cos(x)}{\sec^2(2x)}}\]
^ That's what I was getting at.
oh yeah because of the product rule of limits.
And before learning LH rule, you should already know what the identity \(\dfrac{\sin(x)}{x}\) gives you.
yes, but I thought LHS was required.
you already used L'Hospitals rule once
Sometimes when you are able to spot an identity, you can avoid using LH rule.
true:) But you know how some teacher insist on re-using it again and again whether it's easy or not... although your way really seems convincing and (almost) the only...
The purpose of LH rule is to simplify a function and bring it out of an indeterminant form. Once it is out of indeterminant form,you can do whatever you want. It's a free country.
:P
sure:)
we're left with cos x over sec squared 2x since sinx over x is 1 right?
yes.
\(\Large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0} ~\frac{ 2\sin(x)\cos(x)}{ 2x\sec^2(2x)}}\) \(\Large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0} ~\frac{ \sin(x)\cos(x)}{ x\sec^2(2x)}}\) \(\Large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0} ~\frac{ \sin(x)}{ x}\times }\)\(\Large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0} ~\frac{ \cos(x)}{ \sec^2(2x)}}\)
this is what we have done.
And then, as you said. \(\Large\color{black}{1\times }\)\(\Large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0} ~\frac{ \cos(x)}{ \sec^2(2x)}}\)
so now i j just plug in 0 right?
yes, everything is correct. I am just again reposting the work, just to make sure you have all the information and stpes you need to have.
yes, plug in 0
so i got 1 as my limit.
Yup!
the answer is 1
Good job.
I still think it is better to do the following \[\frac{ \sin^2 x }{ \tan(x^2) }\] \[=\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\frac{x^2}{\tan(x^2)}\] \[=\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\cos(x^2)\frac{x^2}{\sin(x^2)}\to1\times 1\times1\times1=1\]
it's definitely IS better to do that.
anyways, just a little attachment.
save L'Hospitals rule for hard problems
Ugh, accidentally deleted my post.
\[\tan(x^2)=\frac{\sin(x^2)}{\cos(x^2)}\]
\[\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin(x^2)}{x^2}=\lim_{u\to 0}\frac{\sin(u)}{u}=1\] \[u=x^2\]
oh I got it.
I think it comes not from substitution that \(\large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0}\frac{\sin^2 x}{x^2}=0}\). \(\large\color{black}{\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0}\left(\begin{matrix} \frac{\sin x}{x} \\ \end{matrix}\right)^2=0}\) \(\large\color{black}{\left(\begin{matrix}\displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow ~0} \frac{\sin x}{x} \\ \end{matrix}\right)^2=0}\)
just by applying basic limit rules. I meean sub is shorter, but rules are more basic.
either way...
those limits are 1 not 0
yes 1... by bad, I left a zero from the latex that I copied, sorry.
(but you get what I was trying to say)
yeah,this makes more sense thank you all so much for your help.
yw
ohh, my pdf has a typo in it. where the integral is. I'll fix that, hold.
okay
there fixed it.
it had a and b instead of z and w, not that it matters, but .... it was a nice post, and tnx everyone!
thanks.
There is an identity for cos(x) that I do not remember, it complements \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin(x)}{x}=1\] Something like.. \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac {1-\cos(x)}{x}=0\] I think..
Anyway, good luck with Calculus!!
i'll try finding it in my book and thank you
http://www.cliffsnotes.com/math/calculus/calculus/limits/limits-involving-trigonometric-functions
yes, correct, Jhanny
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