r=f(t) r''=K/r^2 solve for f(t)
f(t) = r
:)
haha =[
hahahah... 100 for @zzr0ck3r
how about i solve it for small r increments, it wud be approximately linear ode there
What if you multiply by the first derivative: \[\begin{align*} \color{red}{r'}r''&=\frac{K\color{red}{r'}}{r^2} \end{align*}\] To get this equation, we would have differentiated the following with respect to \(t\): \[\begin{align*} \frac{1}{2}(r')^2&=C-\frac{K}{r} \end{align*}\] I suppose there's nothing stopping us from taking the square root, then we have \[\begin{align*} r'&=\pm\sqrt{2C-\frac{2K}{r}} \end{align*}\] I'm curious to see if there's a way to find \(r\) using a similar approach for reducing \(r''\) to \(r'\)...
hey thats very nice at least we can show that r' is converging now
the problem came out of a particle charge that is being repelled by a stationary charge |dw:1418789778961:dw|
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