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Mathematics 18 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

...a question related to combinatorcs and number theory...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\(\Large p | \left(\begin{matrix}p \\ k\end{matrix}\right)\) "p" is prime and k=1,2,3,...,p-1

OpenStudy (anonymous):

prove...

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

Notice \(p \not | ~k\) as \(k\) is an integer less than \(p\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i've got some idea... \[\left(\begin{matrix}p \\ k\end{matrix}\right) = p \frac{ (p-1)! }{ k! (p-k)! }\] so we should only prove that (p-1)! / k! (p-k)! is natural.

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

rearranging that formula gives \[k!\binom{p}{k} = p(p-1)(p-2)\cdots (p-k+1)\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@ganeshie8 wait...please wait

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

okay

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i think i got it let me continue...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so, \[ p|k! \left(\begin{matrix}p \\ k\end{matrix}\right)\] and as k is less than p so, k! is not divisble to p so, \[p | \left(\begin{matrix}p \\ k\end{matrix}\right)\]

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

Yes!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Thank you so much ;)

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

\[k!\binom{p}{k} = p(p-1)(p-2)\cdots (p-k+1)\] that means \(p | k!\) or \(p | \binom{p}{k}\) we figured out before that \(p \not | ~k\) so \( p \not|~k!\) as well consequently \(p | \binom{p}{k}\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes that results from Euclid's lemma

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

right, are you doing number theory ?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

which textbook are u following

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

we can use this result to prove fermat's little thm

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

Fermat's little thm if \(p\) is a prime, then below holds for all integers \(a\) : \[a^p \equiv a\pmod{p}\] this can be proved inductively using the earlier result about binomial coefficients give it a try when free, it is fun :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you may know Maryam Mirzakhani,iranian person who won the field's prize...she had published a book , Number theory and i use it...\(\Large a^{\{\phi(m)\}} \equiv a\pmod{p}\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

and that theorem comes from it becuase phi(p) = p-1

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

yes proof of euler's generalization is bit more involved.. fermat's little thm is a subcase of euler's thm and the proof is bit easy compared to that

OpenStudy (anonymous):

sry it was 1 and (mod m) ;) i copied it and forgot to correct it ;)

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

\[a^{\phi(n)} \equiv 1\pmod{n}\]

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

what topic are you studying now ?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

now...i'm just solving some questions about prime numbers then i'll go to study Modular arithmetic ...after that i will study reduced residue system

OpenStudy (anonymous):

number theory is too hard ... some questions are really frustrating...

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

ikr :) tag me in all your future posts, i love these problems

OpenStudy (anonymous):

sure :) thank you for this problem...

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