Was wondering, I think this statement (in the comments) is true.
I think it is, and I am pretty sure.
Confrim please....
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
\[\LARGE c_{_1} \times \sum_{n=c_{_2}}^{c_{_3}}f(n)= \sum_{n=c_{_2}}^{c_{_3}} c_{_1} \times f(n)\]
(where \[\large c_{_1}~,~ c_{_2}~,~ c_{_3},\] are just 3 numbers that can be, but not necessarily equal to each other)
and assuming that
\[ \large c_{_1}\ne 0,~~1\]