Proving trig equations \(\sf 1+sec^2xsin^2x=sec^2x\)
I am thinking to use \(\sf 1+tan^2x=sec^x\) but I don't think that is right.
That should be \(\sf sec^2x\)
You're on right track.. keep going :)
Take the left hand side \[1+\sec^2x\sin^2x\] To use the identity, somehow you need to make the second term \(\sec^2x\sin^2x\) equal to \(\tan^2 x\). Maybe start by writing sec^2x as 1/cos^2x
Ok, \(\sf 1+\dfrac{1}{cos^2x}sin^2x=sec^2x\). I believe I somehow have to make \(\sf \dfrac{1}{cos^2x}sin^2x\) become \(\sf\dfrac{sin^2x}{cos^2x}\)
to multiply two fractions, you simply multiply the numerators and denominators separately : \[\dfrac{1}{a}\cdot b = \dfrac{1}{a}\cdot \dfrac{b}{1} = \dfrac{1\cdot b}{a\cdot 1} = \dfrac{b}{a}\]
In short \[\dfrac{1}{a}\cdot b = \dfrac{b}{a}\]
\(\large\color{black}{1+\sec^2x \sin^2x=\sec^2x}\) \(\large\color{black}{\cos^2x\sec^2x+\sec^2x \sin^2x=\sec^2x}\) \(\large\color{black}{(\cos^2x+ \sin^2x)\sec^2x=\sec^2x}\)
like this
ganesh, what do you think?:P
thats kinda cute :D
:D
Oh, I forgot that. So after multiplying there is \(\sf 1+\dfrac{sin^2x}{cos^2x}=sec^2x\). \(\sf\dfrac{sin^2x}{cos^2x}=tan^2x\) Then \(\sf 1+tan^2x=sec^2x\) O_O
yuuuuuup, so simple, right?
oh, just rewriting it as tan^2x is definitely better
LoL
I haven't recognized that it is tan^2x sitting in there...
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!