Hmm,in this problem i don't think substitution will work...what can i do?
\(\huge\int\limits_{-\frac{ \pi }{ 2 }}^{\frac{ \pi }{ 2 }} \frac{ x^2 sinx }{ 1 + x^6 }\)
the integral of an odd function from -a to a is zero
yes thank you ;) i didn't notice that
sin x makes the whole function odd
your welcome :)
but it was as this: \( \huge \int\frac{ x^2 sinx }{ 1 + x^6 } \)
how can i find this?
that doesn't have a simple antiderivative
the antiderivative cannot be expressed in terms of elementary functions (algebraic, trig, inverse trig, logs, exponential)
"In calculus, every single-variable function composed of elementary functions has a derivative, but not every such function can be integrated, i.e., you cannot express the antiderivative in terms of elementary functions. Elementary functions include polynomials, rational functions, radical expressions, exponential functions, logarithms, trig functions, and inverse trig functions." http://calculus-geometry.hubpages.com/hub/List-of-Functions-You-Cannot-Integrate-No-Antiderivatives
an example of a function which has no antiderivative is e^(x^2)
but the function x*e^(x^2) does have an antiderivative
we can integrate x^2*sin(x) and x*sin(x), the problem is the denominator 1+ x^6
well,thank you very much ;)
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