Question

How do you prove 1=0 using integration by parts?

Answer 1

You can do it, you just gotta start with this integral \[\Large \int\limits \frac{1}{x}dx\]

Answer 2

its very serious situation :D

Answer 3

\[\Large x^{-1}=u \ \ dx=dv \\ \Large -x^{-2}dx=du \ \ x=v\]

Answer 4

oh then what xD

Answer 5

\[\Large \int\limits \frac{1}{x}dx=uv-\int\limits vdu \\ \Large \frac{1}{x}x-\int\limits x \frac{-1}{x^2}dx \\ \Large 1+ \int\limits \frac{1}{x} dx\]

Answer 6

i see

Answer 7

Now all you gotta do is just see that they are equal, and subtract off the integrals. So it's obvious now that all of calculus is just a lie

Answer 8

infact thats also proof
0=1,2,3,4,5,......n for any integer xD

Answer 9

Well true, but once you realize that 1=0 then we can apply this to itself: \[0=1=1+0=1+1=2 = 2+0 = 2+1 = 3 =...\]

Answer 10

Pretty handy so now we can go ahead and prove that 0 = infinty

Answer 11

yep interesting !

Answer 12

Luckily though it's not a big deal, since \[n=n*1=n*0=0\] So it makes sense, since all numbers are really zero all along!

Answer 13

This appeals to our common sense, I've never "seen" a 3, I've seen 3 books but just because I can hold a book doesn't mean I can hold a 3. So obviously numbers don't exist by this proof and it makes sense since no one's ever held a number in their hands before, it's pretty obvious.

Answer 14

:P

Answer 15

seems like all illusion xD they made the whole thing to troll kids in school by studying unnecessary stuff bahahaha

Answer 16

now lets see why this integral invalid :D

Answer 17

do you know why ?

Answer 18

Yeahh foolish kids! Yeah I know why it's easy once you know what the trick is XD

Answer 19

i know xD sure u know

Answer 20

The indefinite integral of the copy function is CTRL + C

Answer 21

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Answer 22

yes

Answer 23

What's with it and the mass tagging, honestly?

Answer 24

too much tagging m8 ,-,

Answer 25

its against coc and thats spamming tags

Answer 26

The bloody hell with the mass tagging.

Answer 27

Please do not mass tag it is against the CoC

Answer 28

lol Logan XD

Answer 29

xDDD

Answer 30

so any help from u nice awesome folks :D

Answer 31

@Marki i got you ":) very intelligent haan :

Answer 32

Can people please stop putting me in mass tags? I have work I need help with on here and I don't need notifications distracting me. Sorry if I came across rude. thanks.

Answer 33

just help me :'( ans say why 0=1 in this question

Answer 34

sure

Answer 35

I like this fake proof xD we can prove 0 equals any number using this trick :
\[\int f(x) dx \stackrel{?}{=} \int f(x) dx + C \]

"subtract" and be happy :P
\[0 \stackrel{?}{=} C\]

Answer 36

:D yes indeed

Answer 37

Yeah but that ruins the fun of it haha. The whole point is to trick students who are in calculus 2 into thinking integration by parts is mysterious when really it's just the product rule lol

Answer 38

.