looking for a simple proof show that \[\left.\begin{array}{} a\equiv b\pmod{m}\\a\equiv b\pmod{n} \end{array}\right\}\implies a\equiv b \pmod{\rm{lcm}(m,n)}\] \(m,n,a,b \in \mathbb{Z}\)
i guess this is equivalent to proving \(m|c \) and \(n|c\) \(\implies\) \(\rm{lcm}(m, n) | c\) where \(c = a-b\)
I agree the first part, but second I'm not so sure. Seems like you should be able to use chinese remainder theorem
so we don't know if they are relatively prime ... hmm, if you want I can ask my teacher in a few hours. He LOVES LOVES LOVES number theory
please do fib, im really looking for a short and neat proof xD
will do, he'll love it
idk why, but I feel like this just cannot be true for all numbers
so in words we have, for any m,n where there exists a,b s.t. \(a\equiv bmodm\equiv bmod n\) then \(a\equiv b(mod~lcm(m,n))\) ...
yes they could be any integers \(m,n,a,b \in \mathbb{Z}\)
il add this to the main question..
could attempt a contrapositive proof, but I doubt that'd be short
\( \begin{array}l\color{red}{\text{o}}\color{orange}{\text{k}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{ }}\color{green}{\text{f}}\color{blue}{\text{r}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{m}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{b}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{o}}\color{green}{\text{t}}\color{blue}{\text{h}}\color{purple}{\text{ }}\color{purple}{\text{e}}\color{red}{\text{q}}\color{orange}{\text{u}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{a}}\color{green}{\text{t}}\color{blue}{\text{i}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{n}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{w}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{e}}\color{green}{\text{ }}\color{blue}{\text{g}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{t}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{♫}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{♬}}\color{green}{\text{}}\end{array} \) \(a=b \mod{(n\times m)}\\ \)
case 1 when gcd(m,n)=1 then lcm(m,n)=m*n/gcd(n,m)=m*n done
case 2 when gcd(n,m)=d
thats right, when \(m,n\) are coprime it is obvious that \[m|c~~\text{and}~~n|c \implies mn |c\]
but im looking for a proof, not just intuition
hmm i was proving :| (sill dint finish second part) what do u mean of proof ? do u have an idea ?
\[\begin{array}l\color{red}{\text{o}}\color{orange}{\text{k}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{ }}\color{green}{\text{f}}\color{blue}{\text{r}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{m}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{b}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{o}}\color{green}{\text{t}}\color{blue}{\text{h}}\color{purple}{\text{ }}\color{purple}{\text{e}}\color{red}{\text{q}}\color{orange}{\text{u}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{a}}\color{green}{\text{t}}\color{blue}{\text{i}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{n}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{w}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{e}}\color{green}{\text{ }}\color{blue}{\text{g}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{t}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{♫}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{♬}}\color{green}{\text{}}\end{array} a=b \mod{(n\times m)}\\\] how did u get this ?
did u miss lcm inside mod ?
haha ok i'll rewrite i guess i got what u mean
for any integer number is a set of primes: a = 2*3*...(for example). a= w *m. -->1 a= r*n. -->2 we will assume that n> m (if = it is trivial) h=lcm(m,n) = n*x. thus a/h=r/x. and factors of x (I will use letter u for factors ): -u in m and not in n: Or (u is repeated in m more than n). \[u \notin n . u \in m \rightarrow u \in r.\] thus r/x = integer .
Are you the @ganeshie8
there* :P
\(\Large m=gcd(n,m)x \Rightarrow m|a-b \Rightarrow x gcd(n,m)|a-b\\ \Large n=gcd(n,m)y \Rightarrow n|a-b \Rightarrow y gcd(n,m)|a-b \\ \text {there for }\\ \large xy gcd(n,m)|a-b \\\text {but }\\ \Large lcm(n,m)=\frac{m*n}{gcd(n,m)}=\frac{xy(gcd(n,m)^2 )}{gcd(n,m)} =xy gcd(n,m)\\\text {thus }\\ \Large lcm(n,m)|a-b\\ \Large a=b\mod(lcm) \)
that looks more like the one im thinking about, let me see if i get it it correctly since m|a and n|a, you're writing a = w*m = r*n next, you're showing that a/gcd(m,n) is an integer. pretty clever xD il still need to go through it multiple times to make sense of it fully
i have another proof hmm but i likes @catch.me idea
one sec, let me go through you proof @Marki
i dint follow it with gcd(x,y)=1
@Marki thanks ,but i didn't understand what you wrote!
\(\Large m=\gcd(n,m)x \Rightarrow m|a-b \Rightarrow x \gcd(n,m)|a-b\\ \Large n=\gcd(n,m)y \Rightarrow n|a-b \Rightarrow y \gcd(n,m)|a-b \\ \text {there fore }\\ \large \color{Red}{xy \gcd(n,m)|a-b }\\\\\) why are we allowed to conclude like this @Marki ?
looks there is some typo think she meant xy | (a-b)
\(\Large m=\gcd(n,m)x \Rightarrow m|a-b \Rightarrow x|a-b\\ \Large n=\gcd(n,m)y \Rightarrow n|a-b \Rightarrow y|a-b \\ \text {there fore }\\ \large \color{Red}{xy |a-b }\\\\\) this is true because x and y are relatively prime
\(\Large n=\prod p_i^{k_i}\\\Large m=\prod p_j^{k_j}\\ \Large gcd(n,m)=\prod p_g^{k_g} \) thus one *unique divisor * of both satisfy that property
see mn=xy gcd(n,m) ^2 but as the property said one unique divisor ( for m,n means not to pick power of primes ) as gcd(x,y)=1 we pick them both but we had gcd(n,m)^2 we take gcd(n,m) alone hmmm i'll try to show u in proper words
that looks good to me !
I see.. that works because of the definition of lcm : \[\mathrm{lcm(m,n)} = \prod_{i=1}^r p_i^{\mathrm{max}\{m_i,n_i\}}\]
without loss of generality \(\Large n=\prod p_i^{k_i}\\m=\prod p_j^{g_j}\\ \Large gcd(n,m)=\prod p_i^{|k_i-q_j|} \\ \Large gcd(gcd(n,m),x,y)=1 \)
yes thats even more neat xD
i have just removed gcd from your proof :)
i saw this proof once but never wrote it again ,i guess it was using max notation as well xD
fixed typo : consider prime factorization of \(m\) and \(n\) : \(\large m = p_1^{m_1}p_2^{m_2} \cdots p_r^{m_r}\) \(\large n = p_1^{n_1}p_2^{n_2} \cdots p_r^{n_r}\) since \(m|c\) and \(n|c\), we have \(p_i^{\max\{m_i, n_i\}} ~\Big | ~c\) and consequently \(\mathrm{lcm}(m,n) | c\) \(\blacksquare\)
nice
so, from my teacher, if m and n a relatively prime by chinese remainder, this is obvious. The issue(which he hasn't solved yet) is when they are not relatively prime
we attempted the prime factorization method of reducing but the issue was being rigorous
apply Chinese theorem for the least un common primes
then do some stuff
I do not understand what you mean there
idk lol :P
Ya see, I wanted to do the prime factorization then remove the common primes but rigorously, was the issue
whats ur question anyway ?
this sentence makes no sense to me "apply Chinese theorem for the least un common primes "
sorry about that xD
which, is my confusion, but anyways, yea, so we need to determine how to break m and n down into their prime factorizations then determine a way to set up chinese remainder
interesting xD yeah chinese remainder thm requires moduli to be relative prime when taken in pairs. rigorous proof without using prime factorization looks very tricky
well, it gives us a two case proof, case 1 they're relatively prime, case2 they're not
im not getting any ideas atm, il wait for your proof fib :)
haha, my teacher didn't get it in the 20 minutes he looked at it. His intuition was to try and use the proof of the chinese remainder thm somehow
If \(a\equiv b\pmod m\) and \(a\equiv b\pmod n\) then below also holds : \(a\equiv b\pmod{d}\) where \(d\) is any divisor of \(m\) or \(n\) but this logic is also similar to prime factorization hmm..
well, I was thinking reverse chinese simplification for lcm (m,n) when relatively prime, but I guess generically we can just break it down into their primes, then say on the ones it shares are this way too somehow
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