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ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

looking for a simple proof show that \[\left.\begin{array}{} a\equiv b\pmod{m}\\a\equiv b\pmod{n} \end{array}\right\}\implies a\equiv b \pmod{\rm{lcm}(m,n)}\] \(m,n,a,b \in \mathbb{Z}\)

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

i guess this is equivalent to proving \(m|c \) and \(n|c\) \(\implies\) \(\rm{lcm}(m, n) | c\) where \(c = a-b\)

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

I agree the first part, but second I'm not so sure. Seems like you should be able to use chinese remainder theorem

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

so we don't know if they are relatively prime ... hmm, if you want I can ask my teacher in a few hours. He LOVES LOVES LOVES number theory

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

please do fib, im really looking for a short and neat proof xD

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

will do, he'll love it

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

idk why, but I feel like this just cannot be true for all numbers

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

so in words we have, for any m,n where there exists a,b s.t. \(a\equiv bmodm\equiv bmod n\) then \(a\equiv b(mod~lcm(m,n))\) ...

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

yes they could be any integers \(m,n,a,b \in \mathbb{Z}\)

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

il add this to the main question..

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

could attempt a contrapositive proof, but I doubt that'd be short

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\( \begin{array}l\color{red}{\text{o}}\color{orange}{\text{k}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{ }}\color{green}{\text{f}}\color{blue}{\text{r}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{m}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{b}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{o}}\color{green}{\text{t}}\color{blue}{\text{h}}\color{purple}{\text{ }}\color{purple}{\text{e}}\color{red}{\text{q}}\color{orange}{\text{u}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{a}}\color{green}{\text{t}}\color{blue}{\text{i}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{n}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{w}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{e}}\color{green}{\text{ }}\color{blue}{\text{g}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{t}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{♫}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{♬}}\color{green}{\text{}}\end{array} \) \(a=b \mod{(n\times m)}\\ \)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

case 1 when gcd(m,n)=1 then lcm(m,n)=m*n/gcd(n,m)=m*n done

OpenStudy (anonymous):

case 2 when gcd(n,m)=d

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

thats right, when \(m,n\) are coprime it is obvious that \[m|c~~\text{and}~~n|c \implies mn |c\]

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

but im looking for a proof, not just intuition

OpenStudy (anonymous):

hmm i was proving :| (sill dint finish second part) what do u mean of proof ? do u have an idea ?

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

\[\begin{array}l\color{red}{\text{o}}\color{orange}{\text{k}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{ }}\color{green}{\text{f}}\color{blue}{\text{r}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{m}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{b}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{o}}\color{green}{\text{t}}\color{blue}{\text{h}}\color{purple}{\text{ }}\color{purple}{\text{e}}\color{red}{\text{q}}\color{orange}{\text{u}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{a}}\color{green}{\text{t}}\color{blue}{\text{i}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{n}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{w}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{e}}\color{green}{\text{ }}\color{blue}{\text{g}}\color{purple}{\text{o}}\color{purple}{\text{t}}\color{red}{\text{ }}\color{orange}{\text{♫}}\color{#E6E600}{\text{♬}}\color{green}{\text{}}\end{array} a=b \mod{(n\times m)}\\\] how did u get this ?

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

did u miss lcm inside mod ?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

haha ok i'll rewrite i guess i got what u mean

OpenStudy (anonymous):

for any integer number is a set of primes: a = 2*3*...(for example). a= w *m. -->1 a= r*n. -->2 we will assume that n> m (if = it is trivial) h=lcm(m,n) = n*x. thus a/h=r/x. and factors of x (I will use letter u for factors ): -u in m and not in n: Or (u is repeated in m more than n). \[u \notin n . u \in m \rightarrow u \in r.\] thus r/x = integer .

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Are you the @ganeshie8

OpenStudy (anonymous):

there* :P

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\(\Large m=gcd(n,m)x \Rightarrow m|a-b \Rightarrow x gcd(n,m)|a-b\\ \Large n=gcd(n,m)y \Rightarrow n|a-b \Rightarrow y gcd(n,m)|a-b \\ \text {there for }\\ \large xy gcd(n,m)|a-b \\\text {but }\\ \Large lcm(n,m)=\frac{m*n}{gcd(n,m)}=\frac{xy(gcd(n,m)^2 )}{gcd(n,m)} =xy gcd(n,m)\\\text {thus }\\ \Large lcm(n,m)|a-b\\ \Large a=b\mod(lcm) \)

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

that looks more like the one im thinking about, let me see if i get it it correctly since m|a and n|a, you're writing a = w*m = r*n next, you're showing that a/gcd(m,n) is an integer. pretty clever xD il still need to go through it multiple times to make sense of it fully

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i have another proof hmm but i likes @catch.me idea

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

one sec, let me go through you proof @Marki

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i dint follow it with gcd(x,y)=1

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@Marki thanks ,but i didn't understand what you wrote!

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

\(\Large m=\gcd(n,m)x \Rightarrow m|a-b \Rightarrow x \gcd(n,m)|a-b\\ \Large n=\gcd(n,m)y \Rightarrow n|a-b \Rightarrow y \gcd(n,m)|a-b \\ \text {there fore }\\ \large \color{Red}{xy \gcd(n,m)|a-b }\\\\\) why are we allowed to conclude like this @Marki ?

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

looks there is some typo think she meant xy | (a-b)

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

\(\Large m=\gcd(n,m)x \Rightarrow m|a-b \Rightarrow x|a-b\\ \Large n=\gcd(n,m)y \Rightarrow n|a-b \Rightarrow y|a-b \\ \text {there fore }\\ \large \color{Red}{xy |a-b }\\\\\) this is true because x and y are relatively prime

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\(\Large n=\prod p_i^{k_i}\\\Large m=\prod p_j^{k_j}\\ \Large gcd(n,m)=\prod p_g^{k_g} \) thus one *unique divisor * of both satisfy that property

OpenStudy (anonymous):

see mn=xy gcd(n,m) ^2 but as the property said one unique divisor ( for m,n means not to pick power of primes ) as gcd(x,y)=1 we pick them both but we had gcd(n,m)^2 we take gcd(n,m) alone hmmm i'll try to show u in proper words

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

that looks good to me !

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

I see.. that works because of the definition of lcm : \[\mathrm{lcm(m,n)} = \prod_{i=1}^r p_i^{\mathrm{max}\{m_i,n_i\}}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

without loss of generality \(\Large n=\prod p_i^{k_i}\\m=\prod p_j^{g_j}\\ \Large gcd(n,m)=\prod p_i^{|k_i-q_j|} \\ \Large gcd(gcd(n,m),x,y)=1 \)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes thats even more neat xD

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

i have just removed gcd from your proof :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i saw this proof once but never wrote it again ,i guess it was using max notation as well xD

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

fixed typo : consider prime factorization of \(m\) and \(n\) : \(\large m = p_1^{m_1}p_2^{m_2} \cdots p_r^{m_r}\) \(\large n = p_1^{n_1}p_2^{n_2} \cdots p_r^{n_r}\) since \(m|c\) and \(n|c\), we have \(p_i^{\max\{m_i, n_i\}} ~\Big | ~c\) and consequently \(\mathrm{lcm}(m,n) | c\) \(\blacksquare\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

nice

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

so, from my teacher, if m and n a relatively prime by chinese remainder, this is obvious. The issue(which he hasn't solved yet) is when they are not relatively prime

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

we attempted the prime factorization method of reducing but the issue was being rigorous

OpenStudy (anonymous):

apply Chinese theorem for the least un common primes

OpenStudy (anonymous):

then do some stuff

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

I do not understand what you mean there

OpenStudy (anonymous):

idk lol :P

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

Ya see, I wanted to do the prime factorization then remove the common primes but rigorously, was the issue

OpenStudy (anonymous):

whats ur question anyway ?

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

this sentence makes no sense to me "apply Chinese theorem for the least un common primes "

OpenStudy (anonymous):

sorry about that xD

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

which, is my confusion, but anyways, yea, so we need to determine how to break m and n down into their prime factorizations then determine a way to set up chinese remainder

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

interesting xD yeah chinese remainder thm requires moduli to be relative prime when taken in pairs. rigorous proof without using prime factorization looks very tricky

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

well, it gives us a two case proof, case 1 they're relatively prime, case2 they're not

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

im not getting any ideas atm, il wait for your proof fib :)

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

haha, my teacher didn't get it in the 20 minutes he looked at it. His intuition was to try and use the proof of the chinese remainder thm somehow

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

If \(a\equiv b\pmod m\) and \(a\equiv b\pmod n\) then below also holds : \(a\equiv b\pmod{d}\) where \(d\) is any divisor of \(m\) or \(n\) but this logic is also similar to prime factorization hmm..

OpenStudy (fibonaccichick666):

well, I was thinking reverse chinese simplification for lcm (m,n) when relatively prime, but I guess generically we can just break it down into their primes, then say on the ones it shares are this way too somehow

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