lim(x,y)->(0,0) of ((5y^4)*cos^2(x))/(x^4+y^4) I tried to use the squeeze theorem, arguing that x^4+y^4 >= y^4 so (1/(x^4+y^4)) <= 1/y^4, multiply through by abs((5y^4)*cos^2(x)) which yields lim(x->0)5*cos^2(x) = 5, which gives me that 0<=lim(original)<=5 This doesn't seem like sufficient evidence to say that the limit doesn't exist, but I'm not really sure where to take it.
Letting x = 0 yields lim(y->0) 5y^4 / (0 + y^4) = lim (y->0) 5*1 = 5 but letting y = 0 yields lim ( x->0) ((5*0^4)*cos^2(x))/(x^4+0^4) = lim (x->0) 0/x^4 = lim (x->0) 0 = 0
since the limits do not match , (it is not path independent) the limit does not exist
Thanks! I can't believe I didn't notice that. Guess I got hung up on the Squeeze Theorem/Polars.
:)
and do you see why lim (x->0) 0/x^4 = 0 ?
because in the limit, the actual value at x = 0 does not matter. so for x not equal to zero, 0/x^4 or 0/x goes to zero
so we wouldn't use Lhopitals, in fact that would make matters worse :)
for example 0/.000001 is still zero , no matter how small you make the denominator
@ganeshie8 if you have time can you look this over to check for any mistakes Ideally we could graph the surface and see why the limit does not exist.
well, you can try several paths, like \(x=y\) and \(y=x^2\) etc.
yes we can pick any two simple paths showing the limit is different along two paths is sufficient
x=0 and y=0 paths will do, it looks good to me :)
\[\lim \limits_{t\to 0 } ~\dfrac{0}{t} = \lim \limits_{t\to 0 }~0 = 0 \]
lim(x,0)->(0,0) of ((5y^4)*cos^2(x))/(x^4+y^4) = 0 lim(0,y)->(0,0) of ((5y^4)*cos^2(x))/(x^4+y^4) = 5
right, i made a typo i should have had lim (x,0) -> (0,0) interestingly if x = y the limit is 5/2
lim(x,x)->(0,0) ((5y^4)*cos^2(x))/(x^4+y^4) =5/2 lim(y,y)->(0,0) ((5y^4)*cos^2(x))/(x^4+y^4) =5/2
nice there could be other paths along which the limit might exist
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