Is the zero vector orthogonal to itself?
No. Even though the dot product is zero, it isn't.
*opinion
(0,0,0,...,0) . (0,0,0...,0) = 0*0 + 0*0 + .. 0*0 = 0
No vector can be orthogonal to itself.
no non-zero vector can be orthogonal to itself
cant be tangent to itself if equal, I say no as well.
Is the zero vector parallel to itself?
Seems more convincing the more I think about it...
(0,0,0...,0) = 1*(0,0,0...,0) therefore `0` vector is parallel to itself
a vector `u` is parallel to vector `v` iff `u=k*v` , where k is not zero
\[\rm a\cdot b = 0 \implies a\perp b\] "One thing about math is, you're supposed to follolw the rules" - Gilberat Strang
no matter how strange the conclusions
maybe k can be zero, but im not sure
I think that the zero vector is orthogonal to itself. All vectors which are orthogonal to itself are called "isotropic vectors"
all vectors? but theres only one vector orthogonal to itself
oops...allvectors which are orthogonal to themselves, are called isotropic vectors
i mean theres only one such vector , the zero vector (im assuming)
I guess that makes it antiparallel to it self also \[(0,0,...,0)=-(0,0,...,0)\]
So what is the angle between two zero vectors? \(0\) or \(\pi/2\) , or \(\pi\)?
yes, with respect to the canonical scalar product, the zero vector is orthogonal to itself
since the zero vector has no direction
so the angle is \(\emptyset\)?
yes by definition if you like
Eh, then it makes all possible angles with itself.
@Michele_Laino I looked up a definition of 'isotropic vector' and this page says the zero vector is not isotropic http://www.encyclopediaofmath.org/index.php/Isotropic_vector
Please note that the orthogonality is a concept relative to the scalar product which we are considering
yes! Sorry you are right! @UnkleRhaukus Nevertheless the vectors which are orthogonal to themselves exist
I think we need some non-empty angle for the trig functions to work, so it seems that any angle is equally valid
Sorry again @UnkleRhaukus I was too much hurry!!
the angles between zero vectors, depend on which formula you use
better is to say that the scalar product between two vectors depends on which bilinear positive definite form you are using, I think!
or which bilinear form (negative, positive, or undefined) you are using, since not all bilinear forms are positive definite
i thinik we can use two different terms : orthogonal and perpendicular zero vector is orthogonal to every vector but we cannot say it is perpendicular to any vector \[ \mathrm{a\cdot b} =0 \iff \mathrm{a} , \mathrm{b} \text{ are orthogonal}\] \[ \theta =\frac{\pi}{2} \iff\mathrm{a} , \mathrm{b} \text{ are perpendicular}\]
\[a\perp b \iff a\cdot b=0\iff\theta=\frac\pi2\iff a\propto ib\]
what is the difference between perpendicular and orthogonal @ganeshie8 ?
i wouldn't dare saying something like that haha!
angle being 90 degrees can be taken as definition of perpendicularity
khan is saying there is a difference between the two terms but in linear algebra we always use them as synonyms http://mathworld.wolfram.com/OrthogonalVectors.html
one thing u need to consider , u should look for axioms systems before work in vectors they consider 0 vector as the additive identity why ? 1-it has no value 2- it has no direction in all systems of works the definition of addictive identity is the value that has no defined quantum in our system . this lead us to this , 0 vector has no direction in first place thus i can't work with it for directions properties . THE END.
to continue with u , if u considers 0 is orth. to itself that means 0 is orth to all vectors that we can define . which looks not true to say , however orth means there is no leaner relation or means vectors are independent , but 0 can be written as 0=0.V which contradict to our claim that its orth.
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